Divisible Sandwiches

Define A A as follows: A = 1 0 0 n zeroes 1 , A=1\underbrace{0\cdots 0}_{n \text{ zeroes}}1, where n n is a positive integer. Does there exist another number B B similarly formed that is a multiple of A A : B = 1 0 0 m zeroes 1 B=1\underbrace{0\cdots 0}_{m \text{ zeroes}}1 such that B > A ? B>A?

Yes, for any A A defined this way Yes, for only some A A defined this way No, never

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5 solutions

Andy Hayes
Sep 12, 2017

Relevant wiki: Factorization of Quadratics

Let j = m + 1 j=m+1 and k = n + 1. k=n+1. Then the numbers can be expressed as follows:

A = 1 0 k + 1 B = 1 0 j + 1 \begin{aligned} A &= 10^k+1 \\ B &= 10^j+1 \end{aligned}

The goal is to make B A \frac{B}{A} an integer for a given n . n.

B A = 1 0 j + 1 1 0 k + 1 = 1 0 j k 1 0 j k 1 1 0 k + 1 \begin{aligned} \frac{B}{A} &= \frac{10^j+1}{10^k+1} \\ &=10^{j-k}-\frac{10^{j-k}-1}{10^k+1} \end{aligned}

Suppose that 1 0 j k 1 10^{j-k}-1 were a difference of squares. Specifically, let

1 0 j k 1 = 1 0 2 k 1 = ( 1 0 k + 1 ) ( 1 0 k 1 ) . 10^{j-k}-1=10^{2k}-1=(10^k+1)(10^k-1).

Then 1 0 j k 1 1 0 k + 1 \frac{10^{j-k}-1}{10^k+1} would be an integer, and so B A \frac{B}{A} would be an integer. In order for this to be true,

j k = 2 k j = 3 k m + 1 = 3 ( n + 1 ) m = 3 n + 2 \begin{aligned} j-k &= 2k \\ j &= 3k \\ m+1 &= 3(n+1) \\ m &= 3n+2 \end{aligned}

And so, for any given A , A, there exists a B B such that A A divides B . B. Here are a couple of examples:

1000001 101 = 9901 1000000001 1001 = 999001 \begin{aligned} \frac{1000001}{101} &= 9901 \\ \\ \frac{1000000001}{1001} &= 999001 \end{aligned}

Isn't it simpler just to note that x + 1 x+1 is a factor of x 3 + 1 x^3+1 , and therefore 1 0 n + 1 10^n+1 divides 1 0 3 n + 1 10^{3n}+1 for any positive integer n n ?

Mark Hennings - 3 years, 8 months ago

What if 10^j-k was not difference of squares..

Utkarsh Kumar - 3 years, 9 months ago

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The problem doesn't require that every possible B B is a multiple of A . A. . Only that there exists a B B that is a multiple of A . A. So as long as you can design that number in some way , it is sufficient. The aim of making 1 0 j k 1 10^{j-k}-1 a difference of squares was to accomplish that.

Andy Hayes - 3 years, 9 months ago

Okay... again, you get to have my lucky comment--as literally there is nothing to state where I can comment elsewhere \n\r <br> <p> ^M (let's see if that works as a newline) This is actually covered in the book Godel, Escher and Bach The Golden Braid. It is a problem that is meant to look like there is a solution that has them being possible but not being possible, as covered with the MU game. \n\r <br> <p> ^M (yeah... I might have to look up Latex... but honestly, I'm kind of hating this website)

Katrina Payne - 3 years, 8 months ago
Steven Yuan
Sep 18, 2017

Relevant wiki: Factorization of Cubics

A = 1 0 n + 1 + 1 B = 1 0 m + 1 + 1. \begin{aligned} A &= 10^{n+1} + 1 \\ B &= 10^{m+1} + 1. \end{aligned}

Note that

1 0 3 n + 3 + 1 = ( 1 0 n + 1 ) 3 + 1 3 = ( 1 0 n + 1 + 1 ) ( 1 0 2 ( n + 1 ) 1 0 n + 1 + 1 ) . 10^{3n + 3} + 1 = (10^{n+1})^3 + 1^3 = (10^{n+1} + 1)(10^{2(n+1)} - 10^{n+1} + 1).

Therefore, if m = 3 n + 2 , m = 3n + 2, then A B A|B so we conclude that yes , any A A has a multiple of this form.

This isn't a helpful solution if you don't show how you found that equation.

Grayson Moses - 3 years, 8 months ago

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It is pretty well known that x 3 + 1 = ( x + 1 ) ( x 2 x + 1 ) . x^3 + 1 = (x + 1)(x^2 - x + 1). However, here's a quick derivation of the factorization:

Note that x 3 + 1 x^3 + 1 is a polynomial. One of its roots is x = 1 , x = -1, since ( 1 ) 3 + 1 = 0. (-1)^3 + 1 = 0. Therefore, we can factor x 3 + 1 x^3 + 1 as ( x ( 1 ) ) g ( x ) , (x - (-1))g(x), for some polynomial g . g. If we apply synthetic division, we find that g ( x ) = x 2 x + 1. g(x) = x^2 - x + 1. So, x 3 + 1 = ( x ( 1 ) ) ( x 2 x + 1 ) = ( x + 1 ) ( x 2 x + 1 ) . x^3 + 1 = (x - (-1))(x^2 - x + 1) = (x + 1)(x^2 - x + 1).

For this particular problem, replace x x with 1 0 n + 1 . 10^{n + 1}.

Steven Yuan - 3 years, 8 months ago
Richard Desper
Sep 21, 2017

( 1 0 n + 1 ) ( 1 0 2 n 1 0 n + 1 ) = 1 0 3 n + 1 (10^n + 1) * (10^{2n} - 10^n +1) = 10^{3n} + 1

It's simple enough to find a value for B given A using the formula above.

Me Myself
Sep 23, 2017

This solution is maybe less elegant, or uses heavier tools and concepts than other solutions, but I think it's quite nice as it shows the solution for every counting base b b . Moreover, it gives all possible solutions .

Consider working in base b b , than the question is: given n n , does there exist an integer m m (obviously m > n m>n ), s.t. b n + 1 b^n+1 divides b m + 1 b^m+1 . (The original question is for b = 10 b=10 ).

This can be rewritten as b m + 1 = 0 m o d ( b n + 1 ) b^m+1=0\ mod\ (b^n+1) and then b m = 1 m o d ( b n + 1 ) b^m=-1\ mod\ (b^n+1) .

Now we notice that g c d ( b , b n + 1 ) = 1 gcd(b,b^n+1)=1 , i.e b , b n + 1 b ,\ b^n+1 are relatively prime. There are numerous ways to show it, for example if p p is a prime divisor of b b , then b = 0 m o d p b=0\ mod\ p but always b n + 1 = 1 m o d p b^n+1=1\ mod\ p , so they share no common prime divisors, and are thus relatively prime.

This means that b b is a member of Z b n + 1 Z^*_{b^n+1} , the multiplicative group modulo b n + 1 b^n+1 .

By definition we know that b n = 1 m o d ( b n + 1 ) b^n=-1\ mod\ (b^n+1) . As b 2 n = ( 1 ) 2 = 1 m o d ( b n + 1 ) b^{2n}=(-1)^2=1\ mod\ (b^n+1) , every odd multiple of n works too:

For a positive integer k k , b ( 2 k + 1 ) n = ( ( b n ) 2 ) k b n = ( ( 1 ) 2 ) k ( 1 ) = 1 k ( 1 ) = 1 m o d ( b n + 1 ) b^{(2k+1)n}=((b^n)^2)^kb^n=((-1)^2)^k(-1)=1^k(-1)=-1\ mod\ (b^n+1) , making it a valid solution.

Thus m = ( 2 k + 1 ) n m=(2k+1)n , for every positive integer k, is a valid solution. In other words, every positive m = n m o d ( 2 n ) m=n\ mod\ (2n) is a valid solution.

These are the only solutions, as < b > <b> , the subgroup of Z b n + 1 Z^*_{b^n+1} generated by b b , is cyclic, and in a cyclic group there is no more than one element of order 2 - in this case the element b n = 1 b^n=-1 .

(More specifically, < b > <b> is isomorphic to Z 2 n Z_{2n} , the additive group modulo 2 n 2n , via the isomorphism f ( b k ) = k m o d ( 2 n ) f(b^k)=k\ mod\ (2n) , and f ( 1 ) = n f(-1)=n , the only element of order 2).

Thus, every m > k m>k s.t. m = n m o d ( 2 n ) m=n\ mod\ (2n) is a valid solution, (in other words, m = ( 2 k + 1 ) n m=(2k+1)n , for every positive integer k), and these are the only valid solutions .

Notice something interesting - this solution does not depend on b b . Thus, for example, 1000001 101 \frac{1000001}{101} equals 9901 9901 if read in base 10, but if read as a binary number, then it is 100000 1 2 10 1 2 = 6 5 10 5 10 = 1 3 10 = 110 1 2 \frac{1000001_2}{101_2}=\frac{65_{10}}{5_{10}}=13_{10}=1101_2 , so it works in base 2, too. If interpreted as base 3, then 100000 1 3 10 1 3 = 73 0 10 1 0 10 = 7 3 10 = 220 1 3 \frac{1000001_3}{101_3}=\frac{730_{10}}{10_{10}}=73_{10}=2201_3 , thus the solution is also valid for base 3, and so on for every b b you please.

I think this is quite remarkable.

Minh Quang Trần
Sep 24, 2017

We all know that a^n + b^n is divisible by a+b if n is odd. For this case, 1000...001 can be written as 10^m +1 and 10^n +1 .Therefore,for every n , choose m=3n,we'll have 10^n+1 dividing (10^n)^3+1 = 10^m+1^3

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