Define A as follows: A = 1 n zeroes 0 ⋯ 0 1 , where n is a positive integer. Does there exist another number B similarly formed that is a multiple of A : B = 1 m zeroes 0 ⋯ 0 1 such that B > A ?
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Isn't it simpler just to note that x + 1 is a factor of x 3 + 1 , and therefore 1 0 n + 1 divides 1 0 3 n + 1 for any positive integer n ?
What if 10^j-k was not difference of squares..
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The problem doesn't require that every possible B is a multiple of A . . Only that there exists a B that is a multiple of A . So as long as you can design that number in some way , it is sufficient. The aim of making 1 0 j − k − 1 a difference of squares was to accomplish that.
Okay... again, you get to have my lucky comment--as literally there is nothing to state where I can comment elsewhere \n\r <br> <p> ^M (let's see if that works as a newline) This is actually covered in the book Godel, Escher and Bach The Golden Braid. It is a problem that is meant to look like there is a solution that has them being possible but not being possible, as covered with the MU game. \n\r <br> <p> ^M (yeah... I might have to look up Latex... but honestly, I'm kind of hating this website)
Relevant wiki: Factorization of Cubics
A B = 1 0 n + 1 + 1 = 1 0 m + 1 + 1 .
Note that
1 0 3 n + 3 + 1 = ( 1 0 n + 1 ) 3 + 1 3 = ( 1 0 n + 1 + 1 ) ( 1 0 2 ( n + 1 ) − 1 0 n + 1 + 1 ) .
Therefore, if m = 3 n + 2 , then A ∣ B so we conclude that yes , any A has a multiple of this form.
This isn't a helpful solution if you don't show how you found that equation.
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It is pretty well known that x 3 + 1 = ( x + 1 ) ( x 2 − x + 1 ) . However, here's a quick derivation of the factorization:
Note that x 3 + 1 is a polynomial. One of its roots is x = − 1 , since ( − 1 ) 3 + 1 = 0 . Therefore, we can factor x 3 + 1 as ( x − ( − 1 ) ) g ( x ) , for some polynomial g . If we apply synthetic division, we find that g ( x ) = x 2 − x + 1 . So, x 3 + 1 = ( x − ( − 1 ) ) ( x 2 − x + 1 ) = ( x + 1 ) ( x 2 − x + 1 ) .
For this particular problem, replace x with 1 0 n + 1 .
( 1 0 n + 1 ) ∗ ( 1 0 2 n − 1 0 n + 1 ) = 1 0 3 n + 1
It's simple enough to find a value for B given A using the formula above.
This solution is maybe less elegant, or uses heavier tools and concepts than other solutions, but I think it's quite nice as it shows the solution for every counting base b . Moreover, it gives all possible solutions .
Consider working in base b , than the question is: given n , does there exist an integer m (obviously m > n ), s.t. b n + 1 divides b m + 1 . (The original question is for b = 1 0 ).
This can be rewritten as b m + 1 = 0 m o d ( b n + 1 ) and then b m = − 1 m o d ( b n + 1 ) .
Now we notice that g c d ( b , b n + 1 ) = 1 , i.e b , b n + 1 are relatively prime. There are numerous ways to show it, for example if p is a prime divisor of b , then b = 0 m o d p but always b n + 1 = 1 m o d p , so they share no common prime divisors, and are thus relatively prime.
This means that b is a member of Z b n + 1 ∗ , the multiplicative group modulo b n + 1 .
By definition we know that b n = − 1 m o d ( b n + 1 ) . As b 2 n = ( − 1 ) 2 = 1 m o d ( b n + 1 ) , every odd multiple of n works too:
For a positive integer k , b ( 2 k + 1 ) n = ( ( b n ) 2 ) k b n = ( ( − 1 ) 2 ) k ( − 1 ) = 1 k ( − 1 ) = − 1 m o d ( b n + 1 ) , making it a valid solution.
Thus m = ( 2 k + 1 ) n , for every positive integer k, is a valid solution. In other words, every positive m = n m o d ( 2 n ) is a valid solution.
These are the only solutions, as < b > , the subgroup of Z b n + 1 ∗ generated by b , is cyclic, and in a cyclic group there is no more than one element of order 2 - in this case the element b n = − 1 .
(More specifically, < b > is isomorphic to Z 2 n , the additive group modulo 2 n , via the isomorphism f ( b k ) = k m o d ( 2 n ) , and f ( − 1 ) = n , the only element of order 2).
Thus, every m > k s.t. m = n m o d ( 2 n ) is a valid solution, (in other words, m = ( 2 k + 1 ) n , for every positive integer k), and these are the only valid solutions .
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Notice something interesting - this solution does not depend on b . Thus, for example, 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 equals 9 9 0 1 if read in base 10, but if read as a binary number, then it is 1 0 1 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 2 = 5 1 0 6 5 1 0 = 1 3 1 0 = 1 1 0 1 2 , so it works in base 2, too. If interpreted as base 3, then 1 0 1 3 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 3 = 1 0 1 0 7 3 0 1 0 = 7 3 1 0 = 2 2 0 1 3 , thus the solution is also valid for base 3, and so on for every b you please.
I think this is quite remarkable.
We all know that a^n + b^n is divisible by a+b if n is odd. For this case, 1000...001 can be written as 10^m +1 and 10^n +1 .Therefore,for every n , choose m=3n,we'll have 10^n+1 dividing (10^n)^3+1 = 10^m+1^3
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Relevant wiki: Factorization of Quadratics
Let j = m + 1 and k = n + 1 . Then the numbers can be expressed as follows:
A B = 1 0 k + 1 = 1 0 j + 1
The goal is to make A B an integer for a given n .
A B = 1 0 k + 1 1 0 j + 1 = 1 0 j − k − 1 0 k + 1 1 0 j − k − 1
Suppose that 1 0 j − k − 1 were a difference of squares. Specifically, let
1 0 j − k − 1 = 1 0 2 k − 1 = ( 1 0 k + 1 ) ( 1 0 k − 1 ) .
Then 1 0 k + 1 1 0 j − k − 1 would be an integer, and so A B would be an integer. In order for this to be true,
j − k j m + 1 m = 2 k = 3 k = 3 ( n + 1 ) = 3 n + 2
And so, for any given A , there exists a B such that A divides B . Here are a couple of examples:
1 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 = 9 9 0 1 = 9 9 9 0 0 1