I know that just adding numerators and denominators doesn’t work. For example,
2 1 + 3 2 = 2 + 3 1 + 2 .
Curious if this kind of addition ever works, I look for positive integers a , b , c , d such that
b a + d c = b + d a + c .
After some searching, I conclude that such numbers don't exist. Am I right?
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In fact, b a > d c , then b a > b + d a + c > d c . (This requires that the variables are positive)
This follows by thinking of the fractions as percentages (esp in probability). When we combine two experiments, we intuitively know that the success probability is between the original 2.
To prove this inequality, we can cross multiply the terms to compare.
Yeah this is a better explanation.
Wow, cool explain!!! :D:D:D
What if we use (1/2)+(2/1)=(1+2)/(2+1)
I believe that in order for this explanation to work, a=/=b=/=c=/=d should have been given?
(=/= means is not)
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no, this is not necessary. You can check a=b=c=d=1, it is still works.
1/2+1/2=2/4 LOL
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If a,b, c,d ,k are integers and a/b=c/d=k,then (a+c)/(b+d)=k
Uh, no it doesn't...
It does work if a=b=c=d. The problem should explicitly state that this case is excluded. The fact that b=c in the case presented is misleading.
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If a,b, c,d ,k are integers and a/b=c/d=k,then (a+c)/(b+d)=k
Hey if a=-c and b=d since integers can be negative
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If a,b, c,d ,k are integers and a/b=c/d=k,then (a+c)/(b+d)=k
But we just discuss about positive intgers on this question so we cant use a=-c
If a,b, c,d ,k are integers and a/b=c/d=k,then (a+c)/(b+d)=k
b a + d c = b + d a + c ⟹ b d a d + b c = b + d a + c ⟹ ( a d + b c ) ( b + d ) = ( a + c ) b d ⟹ a d b + a d 2 + b 2 c + b c d = a b d + c b d ⟹ a d 2 + b 2 c = 0 .
But as a , b , c , d > 0 we can only have a d 2 + b 2 c > 0 , in which case the answer is Yes , there are no positive integer solutions to the given equation.
Note: We can have a solution if precisely one of a , c is negative, e.g., ( a , b , c , d ) = ( 2 , 5 , − 8 , 1 0 ) or ( 2 , 3 , − 8 , 6 ) .
About the note, there are also infinitely many solutions as long as you pick a = c = 0 and b, d, b+d != 0.
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Not just b+d != 0 but b != 0 and d != 0 as well. Otherwise the initial fractions would be invalid.
What if a and/or c are 0?
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The question specifies that a , c , along with b , d , are positive integers, so this isn't a concern here. But if we remove that condition, then if either a , c is zero then for the equation to hold the other must be zero as well. The equation will hold also if a = − c and b = d .
What if a,b,c,d are all equal to 1?
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This wouldn't work, since b a + d c = 1 1 + 1 1 = 2 and c + d a + b = 1 + 1 1 + 1 = 1 .
It would work if ( a , b , c , d ) = ( 1 , 1 , − 1 , 1 ) , but for this problem we require that all of a , b , c , d are positive.
Let us assume that b a + d c = b + d a + c is possible for positive integers and derive a contradiction.
First we simplify the LHS by adding the factions (the correct way!) to get
b d a d + b c = b + d a + c
Now 'cross multiply'
( a d + b c ) ( b + d ) = a b d + c b d
Now multiply out the LHS, and some very obvious 'cancelling' gives
a d 2 + c b 2 = 0
Since this is impossible in positive integers, we can invoke the principle of proof by contradiction and say that the bold expression is false, so
b a + d c = b + d a + c is NOT possible for positive integers.
I really wish I read the questions before answering. Positive integers only...
What about all of them =1?
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Then 1 1 + 1 1 = 2 while 1 + 1 1 + 1 = 1 ... Assuming that they would be equal would lead to 1 × 1 2 + 1 × 1 2 = 0 , or 2=0. Obviously false.
What about all = 0? Then yeah your wrong
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Except 0/0 is not a proper fraction... And the problem asked about POSITIVE integers.
What about all 1? Your original question suggests a could equal b etc
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If they are all 1 the proposed statement reduces to
1+1=1
which is false, isn't it?
Didn't Andres Izquierdo ask this exact same question more than 6 days ago ?! -.-
Suppose that there are positive integers a , b , c . d such that b a + d c = b + d a + c . We know that b a + d c = b d a d + b c . Then, by equivalence of fractions, a d + b c = a + c b d = b + d The second equation only allows for one solution: b = d = 2 . ( Proof: Suppose that there are two positive integers b , d such that b + d = b d . Subtract d from both sides and divide by b − 1 to obtain b − 1 b = d ; simplifying the left hand side yields 1 + b − 1 1 = d . Now, 1 + b − 1 1 ∈ Z ⟹ b − 1 1 ∈ Z ⟹ ( b − 1 ) ∣ 1 : this requires b − 1 = 1 ⟹ b = 2 . Substituting this into our original equality gives d + 2 = 2 d ⟹ d = 2 . For more solutions, see here ) Substituting these values of b , d into the first equation gives 2 a + 2 c = a + c ⟹ 2 ( a + c ) = a + c ⟹ a + c = 0 However, as a and c are both positive, this cannot be true. Thus, the answer is yes : there are no positive integers a , b , c , d such that b a + d c = c + d a + b .
a/b+c/d=(a+c)/(b+d) Reduces to (ad+cb)*(b+d)=abd+cbd Reduces to (b/d)^2=-(a/c). ! Impossible
What if a,b,c,d is taken as 1
Please note that 0 is positiv too! So we have one solution: a=c=0.
No, 0 is neither positive nor negative.
Nothing won’t work bcuz that isn’t a rule for fractions
Multiply both sides with (b+d) and you get a+ad/b+c+cb/d=a+c or, ad/b+cb/d=0, which is not possible for positive a,b,c,d.
AFSOC there exist such (nonzero) positive integers. Just take the partial of both sides wrt a or c. WLOG, choose c and then we find after a little algebra that d=b+d, so b is zero, which is a contradiction.
You can't use differentiation like that because there's no function to begin with.
Multiply both sides by a + c, and the solution is immediately clear
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b + d a + c = b + d a + b + d c
If a,b,c,d are positive integers then b a > b + d a and d c > b + d c .
This implies
b a + d c > b + d a + b + d c
and
b a + d c > b + d a + c