1 + 3 ! 1 + 5 ! 1 + 7 ! 1 + ⋯ 1 + 2 ! 1 + 4 ! 1 + 6 ! 1 + ⋯ = ?
Notation:
!
is the
factorial
notation. For example,
8
!
=
1
×
2
×
3
×
⋯
×
8
.
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hyperbolic functions are those...
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Yes, indeed we have cosh ( x ) = 2 e x + e − x and sinh ( x ) = 2 e x − e − x , making the given expression coth ( 1 ) as I indicated in my solution.
Let us assume the value to be y . 1 + 3 ! 1 + 5 ! 1 + ⋯ 1 + 2 ! 1 + 4 ! 1 + ⋯ = y Now applying componendo-dividendo, ( 1 + 2 ! 1 + 4 ! 1 + ⋯ ) − ( 1 + 3 ! 1 + 5 ! 1 + ⋯ ) ( 1 + 2 ! 1 + 4 ! 1 + ⋯ ) + ( 1 + 3 ! 1 + 5 ! 1 + ⋯ ) = y − 1 y + 1 We can see that the numerator becomes e and denominator becomes e − 1 , e − 1 e = y − 1 y + 1 e 2 = y − 1 y + 1 y = e 2 − 1 e 2 + 1
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Quick answer: It should be clear that the numerator of the given expression is greater than the denominator, so we are looking for an answer > 1 . Only one option fill that requirement, namely e 2 − 1 e 2 + 1 .
Complete answer: Note first that e x = n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! x n = 1 + x + 2 ! x 2 + 3 ! x 3 + 4 ! x 4 + . . . . , and so
e − x = n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! ( − 1 ) n x n = 1 − x + 2 ! x 2 − 3 ! x 3 + 4 ! x 4 − . . . . . .
The numerator of the given expression is then equal to 2 e 1 + e − 1 , and the denominator to 2 e 1 − e − 1 .
The given expression can then be simplified to e − e 1 e + e 1 = e 2 − 1 e 2 + 1 = coth ( 1 ) .