k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( − 1 ) k − 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 n k + 5 3 0 0 = ?
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How did you get the second step in the final integration? From where the 1's appear in the integration by parts technique?
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Are you asking how the integration by parts is done in the last step? I am simply using the fact that z x z − 1 is an antiderivative of x z − 1 . This particular choice of antiderivative is essential for this improper integral, for otherwise the logarithmic singularity of lo g ( 1 − x 1 ) at x = 1 cannot be cancelled out.
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We consider a more general setting. Let z > 0 . Then k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( − 1 ) k − 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 n k + z 1 = k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( − 1 ) k − 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ∫ 0 1 x 2 n k + z − 1 d x = ∫ 0 1 ( n = 0 ∑ ∞ k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( − 1 ) k − 1 x 2 n k ) x z − 1 d x = ∫ 0 1 ( n = 0 ∑ ∞ lo g ( 1 + x 2 n ) ) x z − 1 d x , where in the last step we utilized the Taylor expansion lo g ( 1 + x ) = ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ( − 1 ) k − 1 x k . Now, from the following famous (and easy-to-prove) identity 1 − x 1 = n = 0 ∏ ∞ ( 1 + x 2 n ) , the last step simplifies to = ∫ 0 1 x z − 1 lo g ( 1 − x 1 ) d x = [ z x z − 1 lo g ( 1 − x 1 ) ] 0 1 + z 1 ∫ 0 1 1 − x 1 − x z d x = z H ( z ) , where H ( z ) is the harmonic number. Plugging z = 5 , we end up with k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( − 1 ) k − 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 n k + 5 1 = 5 H ( 5 ) = 5 1 ( 1 + 2 1 + 3 1 + 4 1 + 5 1 ) = 3 0 0 1 3 7 , and multiplying 300 to both sides yields the answer 1 3 7 .