Double the sum, double the fun!

Calculus Level 5

Evaluate the following:

a = 1 b = 1 6 a 2 b 6 + a 4 b 2 \sum_{a=1}^{\infty}\displaystyle\sum_{b=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{6a^2}{b^6+a^4b^2}

If the answer can expressed in the form π n m \dfrac{\pi^n}{m} for positive integers n n and m m , find the value of n + m n + m .


The answer is 16.

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1 solution

Nick Diaco
Feb 28, 2015

Notice that if we switch a a and b b , our sum will still converge to the same value. In other words, a = 1 b = 1 6 a 2 b 6 + a 4 b 2 = a = 1 b = 1 6 b 2 a 6 + b 4 a 2 . \sum_{a=1}^{\infty}\displaystyle\sum_{b=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{6a^2}{b^6+a^4b^2} = \sum_{a=1}^{\infty}\displaystyle\sum_{b=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{6b^2}{a^6+b^4a^2}. If we let the value of this sum be S S , we have that 2 S = a = 1 b = 1 6 a 2 b 6 + a 4 b 2 + a = 1 b = 1 6 b 2 a 6 + b 4 a 2 2S = \sum_{a=1}^{\infty}\displaystyle\sum_{b=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{6a^2}{b^6+a^4b^2} + \sum_{a=1}^{\infty}\displaystyle\sum_{b=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{6b^2}{a^6+b^4a^2} = 6 a = 1 b = 1 a 2 b 2 ( a 4 + b 4 ) + b 2 a 2 ( a 4 + b 4 ) = 6\sum_{a=1}^{\infty}\displaystyle\sum_{b=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{a^2}{b^2(a^4+b^4)} + \displaystyle \dfrac{b^2}{a^2(a^4+b^4)} = 6 a = 1 b = 1 a 4 + b 4 a 2 b 2 ( a 4 + b 4 ) = 6\sum_{a=1}^{\infty}\displaystyle\sum_{b=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{a^4+b^4}{a^2b^2(a^4+b^4)} = 6 a = 1 b = 1 1 a 2 b 2 = 6 a = 1 1 a 2 b = 1 1 b 2 = 6 ( a = 1 1 a 2 ) 2 = 6\sum_{a=1}^{\infty}\displaystyle\sum_{b=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{a^2b^2} = 6\sum_{a=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{a^2}\displaystyle\sum_{b=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{b^2} = 6\bigg( \sum_{a=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{a^2} \bigg)^2 = 6 ( π 2 6 ) 2 2 S = π 4 6 . = 6 \bigg( \dfrac{\pi^2}{6} \bigg)^2 \Longrightarrow 2S = \dfrac{\pi^4}{6}.

Therefore, S = π 4 12 S= \frac{\pi^4}{12} , and our final answer is

12 + 4 = 16 12 + 4 = \boxed{16}

The sum should be pie^4/6, not pie^4/12.As a result answer should be 10. Is it typographical error? Pl confirm.

Prabir Chaudhuri - 6 years, 3 months ago

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The answer that we found at the end, 6 ( π 2 6 ) 2 = π 4 6 6 \big( \frac{\pi^2}{6} \big)^2 = \frac{\pi^4}{6} , is equal to 2 S 2S (rather than simply S S ) because we had to add the double-summation to itself in the beginning of the problem in order to simplify the expression. I just edited my solution to make that distinction a little more clear.

Nick Diaco - 6 years, 3 months ago

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