If the following integral equals to Z
∫ 0 π / 2 ( ( sin x ) cos x − ( cos x ) sin x ) d x
What is the value of ⌊ 1 0 0 0 Z ⌋ ?
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He has given the answer in the title! LOL
:D that is funny !! e^{ i \pi +1 } is answer
This is why I never like Brilliant. I've just posted my solution here & comment but they delete them all.
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To clarify what happened, your solution simply stated
What a joke! It's zero by symmetry. Try this one (click the problem):
It was not a useful solution as it did not contain any explanations. Furthermore, the linked problem did not help explain and would merely introduce cofusion, which is why I deleted it.
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LOL....what was that? :D
As for the solution, notice that the integral is:
∫ 0 π / 2 ( sin x ) cos x d x − ∫ 0 π / 2 ( cos x ) sin x d x
The second integral is same as the first one and this can be shown by using
∫ a b f ( x ) d x = ∫ a b f ( a + b − x ) d x
Hence, the integrals cancel and the answer is 0 .