There should be another rule for this!

Calculus Level 2

Let g ( x ) g(x) be the inverse of a function f ( x ) f(x) . Then g ′ ( x ) g'(x) equals to?

x f ′ ( g ( x ) ) \frac x{f'(g(x))} f ( g ( x ) ) f(g(x)) 1 f ′ ( g ( x ) ) \frac1{f'(g(x))} 1 f ( g ( x ) ) \frac1{f(g(x))}

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Anirudh Kulkarni by Anirudh Kulkarni , 21, India

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1 solution

Anirudh Kulkarni
May 7, 2015

6 Helpful 0 Interesting 0 Brilliant 0 Confused

nice thought

gahin maiti - 6 years ago

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