∫ 0 π 1 + sin x 1 d x
If the value of above integral is of the form a b , where a and b are coprime integers, find the value of b a .
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Note that 1 + sin ( x ) 1 ∗ 1 − sin ( x ) 1 − sin ( x ) = cos 2 ( x ) 1 − sin ( x ) = sec 2 ( x ) − sec ( x ) tan ( x ) ,
the integral of which is tan ( x ) − sec ( x ) , which when evaluated from x = 0 to x = π yields a value of
( tan ( π ) − sec ( π ) ) − ( tan ( 0 ) − sec ( 0 ) ) = ( 0 − ( − 1 ) ) − ( 0 − 1 ) = 2 = 2 1 ⟹ b a = 1 2 = 2 .
Did the same way ;).
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From your title I figured that's the approach you were looking for. :)
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I = ∫ 0 π 1 + sin x 1 d x = 2 ∫ 0 2 π 1 + sin x 1 d x = 2 ∫ 0 2 π 1 + 1 + t 2 2 t 1 d x = 2 ∫ 0 2 π 1 + t 2 + 2 t 1 + t 2 d x = 4 ∫ 0 4 π ( t + 1 ) 2 1 d t = t + 1 4 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 4 π 0 = 4 ( 1 − 2 1 ) = 2 Since sin x is symmetrical on 2 π Let t = tan 2 x , d t = 2 1 + t 2 d x , sin x = 1 + t 2 2 t