Equilibrium of JEE!

A straight metal rod of length 3 L 3L is bent through the right angle as shown. The bent rod is then placed on a rough horizontal table . A light string is attached to the vertex of the right angle. The string is then pulled horizontally so that rod slides at a constant velocity v v .

Find the angle α \alpha (in degrees ) that the side 2 L 2L would make with the string.

Details and Assumptions

  • Mass density of rod: ρ r = 10 kg/m \rho_r= 10\text{ kg/m} ,
  • Length: L = 10 m L = 10\text{ m} ,
  • Velocity: v = 10 m/s v= 10 \text{ m/s} .
This is asked in very old IIT JEE exam !


The answer is 165.96.

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3 solutions

Pranjal Jain
Nov 4, 2014

I think all we need to do is that Centre of mass must lie in line of force.

Since mass density is constant, Mass of 2L=2M and mass of L=M, Now 2 M ( L s i n α ) = M L c o s α 2 t a n α = 0.25 2M(Lsin\alpha)=M\frac{Lcos\alpha}{2}\Rightarrow tan \alpha=0.25 .

Here I have assumed α \alpha the angle between horizontal and 2L, so our answer will be 180-arctan 0.25=165.96 degrees!

Good one !!

Deepanshu Gupta - 6 years, 7 months ago

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Thanks! Your one is nice too!

Pranjal Jain - 6 years, 7 months ago

Did the same.

CH Nikhil - 5 years, 4 months ago

Brilliant Solution!

Ťånåy Nårshånå - 6 years, 4 months ago

Write a comment or ask a question...

Ťånåy Nårshånå - 6 years, 4 months ago

Did same thing.

Purushottam Abhisheikh - 6 years, 4 months ago

That's trivial.But nice...

Spandan Senapati - 4 years ago
Deepanshu Gupta
Nov 4, 2014

Let λ \lambda to be linear mass density so according to figure Figure Figure f 2 = 2 μ λ L g f 1 = μ λ L g { f }_{ 2 }\quad =\quad 2\mu \lambda Lg\\ \\ { f }_{ 1 }\quad =\quad \mu \lambda Lg\quad .


Now Rod is in equilibrium : τ o , n e t = 0 \because \quad { \tau }_{ o\quad ,\quad net }\quad =\quad 0 . f 2 L sin α = f 1 L 2 sin ( α π 2 ) α = π tan 1 1 4 = 165.96 d e g r e e { f }_{ 2 }\quad L\sin { \alpha } \quad =\quad { f }_{ 1 }\quad \cfrac { L }{ 2 } \sin { (\alpha -\cfrac { \pi }{ 2 } ) } \\ \\ \alpha \quad =\quad \pi \quad -\quad \tan ^{ -1 }{ \cfrac { 1 }{ 4 } } \quad =\quad 165.96\quad degree .

same way, except used integration to evaluate torque :)

Mvs Saketh - 6 years, 7 months ago

I did in similar manner but rechecked my answer twice as it come independent of any data given in question

Ayush Garg - 6 years, 7 months ago

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I Put Dummy Values to this Question ! But In original JEE question data is not given ! :)

Deepanshu Gupta - 6 years, 7 months ago

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How can such a easy problem be level 5. Thats the worst side of brilliant.

Anubhav Tyagi - 5 years, 6 months ago

I think f1 and f2 are reversed in fig as per your explaination. Perhaps obvious!

Shivansh Nagi - 6 years, 5 months ago

Did the same way

Ashwin Gopal - 6 years, 5 months ago

i also did this problem by using this method

Prakhar Bindal - 6 years, 4 months ago

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hi prakhar bindal

Anubhav Tyagi - 4 years, 10 months ago

Did the same but what is the use of the given data I nowhere required it.

mudit bansal - 6 years, 3 months ago

Exactly !! :) ( same way)

Aniket Sanghi - 4 years, 10 months ago

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thanx for supporting.

Anubhav Tyagi - 4 years, 10 months ago

did the same !!!!!

A Former Brilliant Member - 3 years, 6 months ago
Soumen Goswami
Nov 6, 2014

Method 1

As the rod is moving with constant velocity, we can safely write the torque equation relative to any point on the rod (without bothering about the torque of pseudo force). The most convenient point is the right angled vertex.

λ ( 2 L ) g ( L sin ( π α ) ) = λ L g ( L cos ( π α ) ) tan α = 1 4 \lambda(2L)g(L\sin(\pi-\alpha))=\lambda Lg(L\cos(\pi-\alpha))\Rightarrow\tan\alpha=-\frac{1}{4}

α 166 \Rightarrow\alpha\approx166 deg

Method 2

The centre of mass must lie along the line of the thread. Treating the two rods as point masses located at their respective CMs, we can say that the CM must divide the line joining them in the inverse ratio of masses.

L sin ( π α ) L 2 cos ( π α ) = 1 2 α 166 \frac{L\sin(\pi-\alpha)}{\frac{L}{2}\cos(\pi-\alpha)}=\frac{1}{2}\Rightarrow\alpha\approx166 deg

well Your Torque equation about right angled in Method-1 is wrong

Deepanshu Gupta - 6 years, 7 months ago

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Yes ... thanks ... the RHS should be λ L g ( L 2 cos ( π α ) ) \lambda Lg\left(\frac{L}{2}\cos(\pi-\alpha)\right)

Soumen Goswami - 6 years, 7 months ago

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