Escaping the magnetic field of a wire

From the surface of a cylindrical wire of radius R = 1 cm R=1~\textrm{cm} carrying a current I = 1 mA I= 1~\textrm{mA} an electron escapes with velocity v 0 = 30 m/s v_{0}=30~\textrm{m/s} perpendicular to the surface of the wire. What will be the electron's maximum distance in meters from the axis of the wire?

Details and assumptions

μ 0 4 π = 1 0 7 H/m \frac{\mu_{0}}{4\pi}= 10^{-7}~\textrm{H/m} e / m e = 1.76 × 1 0 11 C/kg e/m_{e}=1.76 \times 10^{11}~\textrm{C/kg}


The answer is 0.0234.

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4 solutions

Discussions for this problem are now closed

We set up everything in 3 3 -dimensional co-ordinates first. Take the axis of the wire to be the z z axis, and let the direction of the electron be the x x axis. The magnetic field in the x z xz plane is then directed along the y y axis. Let B B be the magnetic field on the electron. Then, Ampere's law gives: B = μ 0 I 2 π x B= \frac{ \mu_0 I}{2 \pi x} However, this field is perpendicular to the velocity of the electron, and hence does no work. This forces the kinetic energy of the electron to be constant. Let v 0 v_0 be the initial velocity of the electron, and let v x v_x and v z v_z be the components of the velocity of the electron on the x x and z z axis respectively (note that the electron has no motion along the y y axis). Then, we have: v 0 2 = v x 2 + v z 2 v_0^2= v_x^2 + v_z^2 v z = v 0 2 v x 2 \implies v_z=-\sqrt{v_0^2-v_x^2} We take the negative value because the electron moves along the negative z z axis. According to Lorentz formula, we get: F = q v × B \vec{F}= q \vec{v} \times \vec{B} m d v d t = e v z B = e v 0 2 v x 2 μ 0 I 2 π x \implies m \frac{dv}{dt}= ev_zB= -e\sqrt{v_0^2-v_x^2}\frac{\mu_0I}{2 \pi x} Note that x x is maximized when v x = 0 v_x= 0 . Also note that d v x d t = v x d v x d x \frac{dv_x}{dt}= v_x \frac{dv_x}{dx} . All what remains is to substitute this value in the equation above. Integrating, we can show that x m a x = R e 2 v 0 π m μ 0 I e x_{max}= R e^{\frac{2v_0 \pi m}{\mu_0Ie}} Plugging the values, we obtain v m a x = 0.0234 m v_{max}= \boxed{0.0234 \ m}

So the electron ends up orbiting the wire?

Matt McNabb - 7 years, 8 months ago

Yeah, because x m a x x_{max} remains constant once its value is reached.

Sreejato Bhattacharya - 7 years, 8 months ago

The final result may be somewhat hard to read. It is actually x m a x = R e x p ( 2 v 0 π m μ 0 I e ) x_{max}= R \ exp \left (\frac{2v_0 \pi m}{\mu_0 I e} \right )

Sreejato Bhattacharya - 7 years, 8 months ago

Your answer is not only elaborate, but also easy to follow. I did not know two details about this question, yet this answer was the only one that helped me overcome this, and now I understand this problem, even though I probably need some more practice before solving these myself. Thank you!

I do have one question however: Why is v 0 v_{0} not the same as v x v_{x} ? Isn't v 0 v_{0} perpendicular to the surface area (given by the problem statement), which means v 0 2 v_{0}^{2} = v z 2 v_{z}^{2} - v x 2 v_{x}^{2} for some very strange x?

Ralph Schraven - 7 years, 8 months ago

Note that whichever direction the electron moves in, given that it is along the x z xz plane, it will always be perpendicular to the y y axis. Since we are given no information of where exactly the electron is going to, we have to decompose the motion of the electron into two components: v x v_x and v z v_z . Please tell me if this answers your query.

Sreejato Bhattacharya - 7 years, 8 months ago

Small typo. The last line should read x m a x = 0.0234 m x_{max}= \boxed{0.0234 m}

Sreejato Bhattacharya - 7 years, 8 months ago
Jatin Yadav
Sep 18, 2013

Let us denote the perpendicular distance from the wire by x x . Let us denote the axes by X X (along the perpendicular ) and Y Y (perpendicular to X X in the plane of motion ) .

Since magnetic force is perpendicular to velocity , it does no work and the speed always remains constant.

Let θ \theta be the angle which v \vec{v} makes with the X X axis.

F x = e v B s i n θ F_{x} = - evBsin\theta

Here, v sin θ = v y = v 0 2 v x 2 v\sin\theta = v_{y} = \sqrt{{v_{0}}^2 - {v_{x}}^2}

Hence , F x = m a x = e ( μ 0 i 2 π x ) v 0 2 v x 2 F_{x} = ma_{x} = -e(\frac{\mu_{0} i}{2 \pi x}) \sqrt{{v_{0}}^2 - {v_{x}}^2}

Putting a x = v x d ( v x ) d x a_{x} = v_{x}\frac{d(v_{x})}{dx} , we get ,

v x d ( v x ) v 0 2 v x 2 = μ 0 i e 2 π m d x x \frac{-v_{x} d(v_{x})}{\sqrt{{v_{0}}^2 - {v_{x}}^2}} = \frac{\mu_{0} i e}{2 \pi m} \frac{dx}{x}

We know that x would maximum when v x = 0 v_{x} = 0

v 0 0 v x d ( v x ) v 0 2 v x 2 = R x m a x μ 0 i e 2 π m d x x \int_{v_{0}}^0 \frac{-v_{x} d(v_{x})}{\sqrt{{v_{0}}^2 - {v_{x}}^2}} = \int_{ R}^{x_{max}} \frac{\mu_{0} i e}{2 \pi m} \frac{dx}{x}

x m a x = R e 2 π m e v 0 μ 0 i e = 0.0234 \Rightarrow x_{max} = R e^{\frac{2 \pi m_{e} v_{0}}{\mu_{0} i e}} = \fbox{0.0234}

Aw, you'd miss one mark at any exam for not denoting the unit along with your answer :(

Ralph Schraven - 7 years, 8 months ago
Qi Huan Tan
May 20, 2014

D i s t a n c e m a x = R e 2 π m e v 0 u 0 I e {Distance}_{max}=Re^{\frac{2{\pi}m_ev_0}{u_0Ie}} By substituting the values given in the problem and taking exponent, e = 2.718281828 e=2.718281828 , we will get D i s t a n c e m a x = 0.0234 {Distance}_{max}=0.0234 .

Parth Thakkar
Sep 16, 2013

The magnetic field at a distance r r from the axis of the wire is given as B = μ 0 I 2 π r B = \dfrac{\mu_0 I } {2\pi r} . The force on the electron is the Magnetic-Lorentz. A quick check shows that the force is in the direction that is opposite to the motion of the electron (hence the question!). The force is given by F = e v B F = -evB since the angle between the velocity vector and the magnetic field vector is 9 0 90^{\circ} at every instant. v v is the magnitude of the velocity of electron and the negative sign is because v v and F F are anti-parallel.

Writing the god equation:

F n e t = m a = e v B F_{net} = ma = -evB

This gives a = d v d t = v d v d r = e m v B a = \dfrac{dv}{dt} = v\dfrac{dv}{dr} = -\dfrac{e}{m}vB .

So, d v = e m B d r = e m ( μ 0 I 2 π ) d r r dv = -\dfrac{e}{m}B dr = -\dfrac e m \left(\dfrac{\mu_0 I} {2\pi}\right) \dfrac{ dr} { r}

Now, the maximum distance occurs when the velocity of the particle becomes zero (and it starts returning to the wire surface).

So, integrating from limits v i = 30 , v f = 0 v_i = 30, v_f = 0 and r i = 0.01 , r f = R r_i = 0.01, r_f = R gives: 30 = μ 0 I e 2 π m ln ( R 0.01 ) -30 = -\dfrac{\mu_0 I e} {2\pi m} \ln \left( \dfrac{ R} { 0.01} \right)

Plugging in the values and solving for R R gives R = 0.023 m R = 0.023 m .

This solution appears to be based on an incorrect assumption that the force is opposite the original velocity, which is not true. The force of a magnetic field is always at a right angle to the velocity. However, the answer is correct and I cannot see what compensates for this incorrect assumption.

Anthony Clark - 7 years, 8 months ago

Yes I must say I made a terrible blunder over here. What made me think like that, I do not know. Really sorry!

And how I got the correct answer, now it's a mystery to me too. Thanks for pointing out. I'll get back as soon as I find out what's that which gives the correct answer.

Parth Thakkar - 7 years, 8 months ago

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