From the surface of a cylindrical wire of radius R = 1 cm carrying a current I = 1 mA an electron escapes with velocity v 0 = 3 0 m/s perpendicular to the surface of the wire. What will be the electron's maximum distance in meters from the axis of the wire?
Details and assumptions
4 π μ 0 = 1 0 − 7 H/m e / m e = 1 . 7 6 × 1 0 1 1 C/kg
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So the electron ends up orbiting the wire?
Yeah, because x m a x remains constant once its value is reached.
The final result may be somewhat hard to read. It is actually x m a x = R e x p ( μ 0 I e 2 v 0 π m )
Your answer is not only elaborate, but also easy to follow. I did not know two details about this question, yet this answer was the only one that helped me overcome this, and now I understand this problem, even though I probably need some more practice before solving these myself. Thank you!
I do have one question however: Why is v 0 not the same as v x ? Isn't v 0 perpendicular to the surface area (given by the problem statement), which means v 0 2 = v z 2 - v x 2 for some very strange x?
Note that whichever direction the electron moves in, given that it is along the x z plane, it will always be perpendicular to the y axis. Since we are given no information of where exactly the electron is going to, we have to decompose the motion of the electron into two components: v x and v z . Please tell me if this answers your query.
Small typo. The last line should read x m a x = 0 . 0 2 3 4 m
Let us denote the perpendicular distance from the wire by x . Let us denote the axes by X (along the perpendicular ) and Y (perpendicular to X in the plane of motion ) .
Since magnetic force is perpendicular to velocity , it does no work and the speed always remains constant.
Let θ be the angle which v makes with the X axis.
F x = − e v B s i n θ
Here, v sin θ = v y = v 0 2 − v x 2
Hence , F x = m a x = − e ( 2 π x μ 0 i ) v 0 2 − v x 2
Putting a x = v x d x d ( v x ) , we get ,
v 0 2 − v x 2 − v x d ( v x ) = 2 π m μ 0 i e x d x
We know that x would maximum when v x = 0
∫ v 0 0 v 0 2 − v x 2 − v x d ( v x ) = ∫ R x m a x 2 π m μ 0 i e x d x
⇒ x m a x = R e μ 0 i e 2 π m e v 0 = 0 . 0 2 3 4
Aw, you'd miss one mark at any exam for not denoting the unit along with your answer :(
D i s t a n c e m a x = R e u 0 I e 2 π m e v 0 By substituting the values given in the problem and taking exponent, e = 2 . 7 1 8 2 8 1 8 2 8 , we will get D i s t a n c e m a x = 0 . 0 2 3 4 .
The magnetic field at a distance r from the axis of the wire is given as B = 2 π r μ 0 I . The force on the electron is the Magnetic-Lorentz. A quick check shows that the force is in the direction that is opposite to the motion of the electron (hence the question!). The force is given by F = − e v B since the angle between the velocity vector and the magnetic field vector is 9 0 ∘ at every instant. v is the magnitude of the velocity of electron and the negative sign is because v and F are anti-parallel.
Writing the god equation:
F n e t = m a = − e v B
This gives a = d t d v = v d r d v = − m e v B .
So, d v = − m e B d r = − m e ( 2 π μ 0 I ) r d r
Now, the maximum distance occurs when the velocity of the particle becomes zero (and it starts returning to the wire surface).
So, integrating from limits v i = 3 0 , v f = 0 and r i = 0 . 0 1 , r f = R gives: − 3 0 = − 2 π m μ 0 I e ln ( 0 . 0 1 R )
Plugging in the values and solving for R gives R = 0 . 0 2 3 m .
This solution appears to be based on an incorrect assumption that the force is opposite the original velocity, which is not true. The force of a magnetic field is always at a right angle to the velocity. However, the answer is correct and I cannot see what compensates for this incorrect assumption.
Yes I must say I made a terrible blunder over here. What made me think like that, I do not know. Really sorry!
And how I got the correct answer, now it's a mystery to me too. Thanks for pointing out. I'll get back as soon as I find out what's that which gives the correct answer.
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We set up everything in 3 -dimensional co-ordinates first. Take the axis of the wire to be the z axis, and let the direction of the electron be the x axis. The magnetic field in the x z plane is then directed along the y axis. Let B be the magnetic field on the electron. Then, Ampere's law gives: B = 2 π x μ 0 I However, this field is perpendicular to the velocity of the electron, and hence does no work. This forces the kinetic energy of the electron to be constant. Let v 0 be the initial velocity of the electron, and let v x and v z be the components of the velocity of the electron on the x and z axis respectively (note that the electron has no motion along the y axis). Then, we have: v 0 2 = v x 2 + v z 2 ⟹ v z = − v 0 2 − v x 2 We take the negative value because the electron moves along the negative z axis. According to Lorentz formula, we get: F = q v × B ⟹ m d t d v = e v z B = − e v 0 2 − v x 2 2 π x μ 0 I Note that x is maximized when v x = 0 . Also note that d t d v x = v x d x d v x . All what remains is to substitute this value in the equation above. Integrating, we can show that x m a x = R e μ 0 I e 2 v 0 π m Plugging the values, we obtain v m a x = 0 . 0 2 3 4 m