Euler Euler?

Calculus Level 5

The Bătinețu's sequence { b n } n 2 \{b_n\}_{n\geq 2} is defined as b n = ( n + 1 ) 2 ( n + 1 ) ! n + 1 n 2 n ! n b_n=\dfrac{(n+1)^2}{\sqrt[n+1]{(n+1)!}}-\dfrac{n^2}{\sqrt[n]{n!}} . Find

lim n ( 1 + b n n ) 1 n n 2 k = 0 n n k k + 1 ( n k ) \large \lim_{n\to \infty}\left(1+\frac{b_n}{n}\right)^{\frac{1}{n^{n-2}}\sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{n^k}{k+1}{ n\choose k}}


This problem, taken from Romanian Mathematical Magazine , was proposed by teacher Florică Anastase, Romania .


The answer is 1618.177.

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2 solutions

Naren Bhandari
Apr 24, 2020

and hence Ω = e e 2 1618.177 \Omega = e^{e^2} \approx 1618.177 .

b n b_{n} is a sequence which tends to e e as n n \to \infty . We can use Stirling's Approximation

as b n l i m n e ( n + 1 ) n e = e \large b_{n} \to lim_{n\to\infty} e(n+1) - ne = e

So ( 1 + b n n ) \large (1+\frac{b_{n}}{n}) can be approximated quite well to 1 + e n \large 1+\frac{e}{n} as n n\to\infty .

Next for r = 0 n n r r + 1 ( n r ) = ( n + 1 ) n n 1 ( n + 1 ) ( n ) \large \sum_{r=0}^{n} \frac{n^{r}}{r+1}\binom{n}{r} = \frac{(n+1)^{n}}{n}-\frac{1}{(n+1)(n)}

You can use integration of ( 1 + x ) n (1+x)^n from 0 0 to n n and the well known identity of binomial theorem to prove this . Or you can use basic rearrangement of the series. This is a well known result...hence I am not proving this.

So a good approximation for this limit would be:-

lim n ( 1 + e n ) 1 n n 2 ( ( n + 1 ) n n 1 ( n + 1 ) ( n ) ) \large \lim_{n\to\infty}(1+\frac{e}{n})^{{\frac{1}{n^{n-2}}(\frac{(n+1)^{n}}{n}-\frac{1}{(n+1)(n)}})}

So now using the formula for 1 1^{\infty} form of limits we have our approximation as :-

e lim n ( e n n 2 n n ( n + 1 n n 1 ( n + 1 ) ( n ) ) \Large e^{\lim_{n\to\infty}(\frac{e}{n}\frac{n^{2}}{n^{n}}(\frac{{n+1}^{n}}{n} - \frac{1}{(n+1)(n)})}

e lim n ( e ( n 2 ) n ( ( 1 + 1 n ) n n 1 ( n n ) ( n + 1 ) ( n ) ) \Large e^{\lim_{n\to\infty}(\frac{e(n^{2})}{n}(\frac{{(1+\frac{1}{n})}^{n}}{n} - \frac{1}{(n^{n})(n+1)(n)})}

Using the fact that ( 1 + 1 n ) n (1+\frac{1}{n})^{n} tends to e e and 1 n 2 ( 1 n n ( n + 1 ) ) \frac{1}{n^{2}}(\frac{1}{n^{n}(n+1)}) tends to 0 as n n\to\infty we have another approximation as :-

our limit is approximated to

e lim n e e n 2 n 2 \Large e^{\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{e\cdot e\cdot n^{2}}{n^{2}}}

= e e e \large =e^{e\cdot e}

e e 2 \large e^{e^{2}} .

now as for the approximations I do not have any formal proofs for those approximations....but I post the pictures of the graphs....perhaps someone more skilled than me at real analysis could prove these.

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