I will attempt to prove that . In which of these steps did I make a flaw in my logic?
Step 1: Using a famous theorem , Step 2: Reciprocate both sides of the equation: Step 3: Equating both equations in the above two steps gives Step 4: Since the bases are the same, Step 5: Canceling the imaginary number yields
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
Relevant wiki: Euler's Formula
Note that the following equation holds :
e 2 i π + z = e 2 i π e z = ( − 1 ) 2 e z = e z
We conclude that the exponential function is not one-one (for complex z and in particular for imaginary z).
Hence, although the base is same, the exponents need not be. This means that the 4th step is incorrect.