Eventually an Orbit?

Let g : R n R n g : \mathbb{R}^{n} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{n} be an injective map. If g g has periodic orbits, will g g also have 'eventually periodic' points?


Background:

Some functions f ( x ) f(x) display what are known as 'periodic orbits,' which is where for some initial point x 0 , x_{0}, repeated application of f f eventually maps back to x 0 . x_{0}.

More specifically, a point x 0 x_{0} is a part of a period- k k orbit if f k ( x 0 ) = x 0 . f^{k}(x_{0}) = x_{0}. The points f ( x 0 ) , f ( f ( x 0 ) ) , f ( f ( f ( x 0 ) ) ) , . . . , f k 1 ( x 0 ) f(x_{0}), \ f\big(f(x_{0})\big), \ f\big(f(f(x_{0}))\big),\ ..., \ f^{k-1}(x_{0}) are also part of this period- k k orbit. Points which are a part of some periodic orbit are known as periodic points.

A point x 1 x_{1} is said to be 'eventually periodic' on f f if x 1 x_{1} is not part of any periodic orbit of f , f, but for some j , j, f j ( x 1 ) f^{j}(x_{1}) is part of a periodic orbit of f . f. The point begins outside of an orbit but eventually maps to one.

As an explicit example, the function f ( x ) = 4 x ( 1 x ) f(x)=4x(1-x) is a 1-D map. f ( 0 ) = 0 , f(0)=0, so that x 0 = 0 x_{0}=0 is a period-1 orbit. The point x 1 = 1 2 x_{1}=\frac{1}{2} is not a periodic point of f , f, and satisfies f ( x 1 ) = 1 , f 2 ( x 1 ) = f ( 1 ) = 0 , f(x_{1})=1, f^{2}(x_{1})=f(1)=0, which is a periodic point of f . f. Hence, x 1 = 1 2 x_{1}=\frac{1}{2} is an eventually periodic point.


Details and Assumptions:

  • It may be helpful to review what an injection is.
  • Here, f k ( x ) f^{k}(x) does not mean the k th k^\text{th} derivative of f . f.
  • The map g g does not need to be continuous.
Always Sometimes Never

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2 solutions

Brandon Monsen
Sep 27, 2018

No knowledge on anything besides what an injection is and what is given in the problem are needed!

if x 0 x_{0} is a periodic point of period k k , then y 0 = g k 1 ( x 0 ) y_{0} = g^{k-1}(x_{0}) satisfies g ( y 0 ) = x 0 g(y_{0})=x_{0} . We also know that y 0 y_{0} is part of the same periodic orbit, since g k 1 ( x 0 ) = y 0 g^{k-1}(x_{0})=y_{0} and g ( y 0 ) = x 0 g(y_{0})=x_{0} imply that g k 1 ( g ( y 0 ) = y 0 g^{k-1}(g(y_{0})=y_{0} or that g k ( y 0 ) = y 0 g^{k}(y_{0})=y_{0} so that y 0 y_{0} is a part of the same period- k k orbit.

Now, we use the fact that g g is injective so that if g ( z ) = x 0 g(z)=x_{0} , and g ( y 0 ) = x 0 g(y_{0})=x_{0} , then we know that z = y 0 z=y_{0} . Hence, no point outside of our orbit can map to x 0 x_{0} , and our answer is NEVER \boxed{\text{NEVER}}

Typical Beam
Oct 6, 2018

Suppose some point a a is eventually periodic. Then for some j , f j ( a ) j,f^j(a) belongs to a periodic orbit, that is, for some k k , f j + k ( a ) = f j ( a ) f^{j+k}(a)=f_j(a) . But $f$ is injective, so this forces f k ( a ) = a f^k(a)=a which cannot be, as $a$ does not belong to any periodic orbit. Thus $f$ has no eventually periodic points.

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