Find the value of the following integral:
∫ 0 ∞ x 1 ( tan − 1 π x − tan − 1 x ) d x .
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I too, directly used frullani theorem :) . (+1) for feymann trick idea :)
Did using Feynman's method. First time heard of Frullani's theorem. Seems interesting!
Yes, Feynman trick
I used the Feynman trick.
Let,
I ( b ) = ∫ 0 ∞ x arctan b x − arctan x d x
Differentiating under the integral symbol,
∂ b ∂ I = ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + ( b x ) 2 x x 1 d x
∂ b ∂ I = ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + ( b x ) 2 1 d x = b arctan b x ∣ 0 ∞
∂ b ∂ I = 2 b π
Integrating with respect to b, I ( b ) = 2 π × l o g ( b ) + C where C is the integration constant.
When b = 1 , I = 0 , Substituting the values,
0 = 2 π × l o g ( 1 ) + C
0 = 0 + C → C = 0
I ( b ) = 2 π × l o g ( b )
Putting b = π we get our required integral.
Required integral = I ( π ) = 2 π × l o g ( π )
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One may utilize Frullani's theorem to evaluate the integral. ∫ 0 ∞ x f ( a x ) − f ( b x ) d x = t → ∞ lim ( f ( 0 ) − f ( t ) ) ln ( a b ) Hence our integral is simply 2 π ln π One may also use Feynman's trick by considering I ( a ) = ∫ 0 ∞ x arctan a x − arctan x d x so that I ( 1 ) = 0 . After differentiating w.r.t. a and then integrating it back, one may obtain I ( a ) = 2 π ln a and our considered integral is I ( π ) .