Exceptional Integral

Calculus Level 3

Find the value of the following integral:

0 1 x ( tan 1 π x tan 1 x ) d x . \displaystyle\int_{0}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{x} \left(\tan^{-1} \pi x - \tan^{-1}x\right)\,dx.


The answer is 1.798.

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2 solutions

One may utilize Frullani's theorem to evaluate the integral. 0 f ( a x ) f ( b x ) x d x = lim t ( f ( 0 ) f ( t ) ) ln ( b a ) \int_0^\infty \frac{f(ax)-f(bx)}{x}\,dx=\lim_{t\to\infty}\bigg(f(0)-f(t)\bigg)\ln\left(\frac{b}{a}\right) Hence our integral is simply π 2 ln π \frac{\pi}{2}\ln\pi One may also use Feynman's trick by considering I ( a ) = 0 arctan a x arctan x x d x I(a)=\int_0^\infty \frac{\arctan ax-\arctan x}{x}\,dx so that I ( 1 ) = 0 \large I(1)=0 . After differentiating w.r.t. a \large a and then integrating it back, one may obtain I ( a ) = π 2 ln a I(a)=\frac{\pi}{2}\ln a and our considered integral is I ( π ) \large I(\pi) .

I too, directly used frullani theorem :) . (+1) for feymann trick idea :)

Shivang Jindal - 6 years, 7 months ago

Did using Feynman's method. First time heard of Frullani's theorem. Seems interesting!

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 11 months ago

Yes, Feynman trick

Rio Schillmoeller - 1 year, 8 months ago

I used the Feynman trick.

A Former Brilliant Member - 5 years, 6 months ago

Let,

I ( b ) = 0 arctan b x arctan x x d x I(b) = \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \dfrac{ \arctan bx - \arctan x}{x}dx

Differentiating under the integral symbol,

I b = 0 x 1 + ( b x ) 2 1 x d x \dfrac{\partial I}{\partial b} = \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \dfrac{x}{1 + (bx)^2} \dfrac{1}{x} dx

I b = 0 1 1 + ( b x ) 2 d x = arctan b x b 0 \dfrac{\partial I}{\partial b} = \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{1+(bx)^2}dx = \dfrac{\arctan bx}{b} |_{0}^{\infty}

I b = π 2 b \dfrac{\partial I}{\partial b} = \dfrac{\pi}{2b}

Integrating with respect to b, I ( b ) = π 2 × l o g ( b ) + C I(b) = \dfrac{\pi}{2} \times log(b)+ C where C is the integration constant.

When b = 1 , I = 0 b = 1, I = 0 , Substituting the values,

0 = π 2 × l o g ( 1 ) + C 0 = \dfrac{\pi}{2} \times log(1) + C

0 = 0 + C C = 0 0 = 0 + C \rightarrow C = 0

I ( b ) = π 2 × l o g ( b ) I(b) = \dfrac{\pi}{2} \times log(b)

Putting b = π b = \pi we get our required integral.

Required integral = I ( π ) = π 2 × l o g ( π ) = I( \pi ) = \dfrac{\pi}{2} \times log( \pi)

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