k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ! k 3 k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ! k 4 = ?
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I think you have recently found the relation between Bells number and e as I see in one of my comment section. :)
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I was looking for the relation. Then someone posted a problem and I found it.
@Chew-Seong Cheong , sir can use expansion of e^x to evaluate this?
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You can differentiate e x to get ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! k . Multiply with x and then differentiate again to get ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! k 2 and so on.
I added another alternative solution.
S 1 = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ! n 4 = ( n − 1 ) ! n 3 = ( n − 1 ) ! ( n 3 − 1 ) + ( n − 1 ) ! 1 = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n − 2 ) ! n 2 + ( n − 2 ) ! n + ( n − 1 ) ! 2 = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n − 2 ) ! ( n + 2 ) ( n − 2 ) + ( n − 1 ) ! 4 + ( n − 2 ) ! 1 + ( n − 1 ) ! 3 = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n − 3 ) ! ( n − 3 ) + ( n − 1 ) ! 3 + ( n − 1 ) ! 8 = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n − 3 ) ! 4 + ( n − 1 ) ! 1 1 = 1 5 e S 2 = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n ! n 3 = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n − 1 ) ! n 2 − 1 + 1 = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n − 2 ) ! n + 1 + ( n − 1 ) ! 1 = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n − 3 ) ! 1 + ( n − 2 ) ! 3 + ( n − 1 ) ! 1 = 5 e
Thus S 2 S 1 = 5 e 1 5 e = 3 .
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We know that k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k n = B n e , where B n is the n th Bell number for n is a non-negative integer. And Bell number can be generated by B n = k = 0 ∑ n − 1 B k ( k n − 1 ) . We can easily get from B 0 = e 1 k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! 1 = e e = 1 . Then we have:
B 1 B 2 B 3 B 4 = B 0 ( 0 1 − 1 ) = 1 = B 0 ( 0 2 − 1 ) + B 1 ( 1 2 − 1 ) = 1 + 1 = 2 = B 0 ( 0 3 − 1 ) + B 1 ( 1 3 − 1 ) + B 2 ( 2 3 − 1 ) = 1 + 2 + 2 = 5 = B 0 ( 0 4 − 1 ) + B 1 ( 1 4 − 1 ) + B 2 ( 2 4 − 1 ) + B 3 ( 3 4 − 1 ) = 1 + 3 + 6 + 5 = 1 5
Therefore, we have ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! k 3 ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! k 4 = ∑ k = 0 ∞ k ! k 3 ∑ k = 0 ∞ k ! k 4 = B 3 n B 4 e = 5 1 5 = 3 .
Alternative solution
k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! 1 k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ! k k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ! k 2 k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ! k 3 k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ! k 4 = e = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k = k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( k + 1 ) ! k + 1 = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! 1 = e = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 2 = k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( k + 1 ) ! ( k + 1 ) 2 = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k + 1 = 2 e = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 3 = k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( k + 1 ) ! ( k + 1 ) 3 = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! ( k + 1 ) 2 = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 2 + 2 k + 1 = 5 e = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 4 = k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( k + 1 ) ! ( k + 1 ) 4 = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! ( k + 1 ) 3 = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 3 + 3 k 2 + 3 k + 1 = 1 5 e
Therefore, we have ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! k 3 ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! k 4 = 5 e 1 5 e = 3 .
Alternative solution
k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! x k d x d k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! x k k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k x k − 1 k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k x k d x d k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k x k k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 2 x k − 1 k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 2 x k d x d k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 2 x k k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 3 x k − 1 k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 3 x k d x d k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 3 x k k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 4 x k − 1 = e x = d x d e x = e x = x e x = d x d x e x = e x + x e x = x e x + x 2 e x = d x d ( x e x + x 2 e x ) = e x + 3 x e x + x 2 e x = x e x + 3 x 2 e x + x 3 e x = d x d ( x e x + 3 x 2 e x + x 3 e x ) = e x + 7 x e x + 6 x 2 e x + x 3 e x ⟹ x = 1 ⟹ k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! 1 = e ⟹ x = 1 ⟹ k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k = e ⟹ x = 1 ⟹ k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 2 = 2 e ⟹ x = 1 ⟹ k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 3 = 5 e ⟹ x = 1 ⟹ k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! k 4 = 1 5 e
Therefore, we have ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! k 3 ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! k 4 = 5 e 1 5 e = 3 .