2 0 0 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1
What are the last three digits of the above number?
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Excellent solution!!! lol..
I do not understand. Please explain it better. What do you mean by totient function ? Are you referring to one of the theorem using the function? If yes, which ? How did you apply it? Thank you in advance.
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Because we're counting the last three digits, we are finding 2 0 0 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 1 0 0 0
Modular arithmetic: 2 0 0 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 1 0 0 0 = ( 2 0 0 3 m o d 1 0 0 0 ) 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 1 0 0 0 = 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 1 0 0 0
By Euler's totient function, a ϕ ( x ) ( m o d x ) ≡ 1 for coprime positive integers a , x
Because 3 and 1 0 0 0 are coprime positive integers, that is, gcd ( 3 , 1 0 0 0 ) = 1 , we can apply Euler's totient function
The next step is to find 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d ( ϕ ( 1 0 0 0 ) ) m o d 1 0 0 0
To evaluate ϕ ( 1 0 0 0 ) , we need to find all the prime factors of 1 0 0 0 , which are 2 and 5 , so ϕ ( 1 0 0 0 ) = 1 0 0 0 × ( 1 − 2 1 ) × ( 1 − 5 1 ) = 4 0 0
Then, 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 4 0 0 m o d 1 0 0 0
Similarly like above, apply modular arithmetic: 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 4 0 0 = ( 2 0 0 2 m o d 4 0 0 ) 2 0 0 1 = 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 4 0 0
You maybe tempted to apply the totient function again but note that 2 and 4 0 0 are not coprime. So we need to split the modulo into two (or more) numbers such that exactly one of them is divisible by 2
4 0 0 = 1 6 × 2 5
We would like to find 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 1 6 and 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 2 5 separately
For the first one, because 2 2 0 0 1 ÷ 2 4 is obviously an integer, it is simply equals to 0
For the second one, we can apply the totient function, 2 2 0 0 1 m o d ( ϕ ( 2 5 ) ) m o d 2 5
Like above, ϕ ( 2 5 ) = 2 5 × ( 1 − 5 1 ) = 2 0
2 2 0 0 1 m o d 2 0 m o d 2 5 = 2
Apply Chinese Remainder Theorem, you should get 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 4 0 0 = 3 5 2
So after all this simplification, we are left with 3 3 5 2 m o d 1 0 0 0
Can you carry on from here?
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3 3 5 2 = ( 1 0 − 1 ) 1 7 6 ≡ ( 2 1 7 6 ) 1 0 2 − ( 1 1 7 6 ) 1 0 1 + 1 ≡ 2 4 1 m o d 1 0 0 0
But why not start with binomial? Let n = 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 / 2 = 1 0 0 1 ⋅ 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 0 , then 2 0 0 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 ≡ 3 2 n = ( 1 0 − 1 ) n ≡ ( 2 n ) 1 0 2 − ( 1 n ) 1 0 1 + 1 m o d 1 0 0 0 It's easy to show n ≡ 0 m o d 4 and n ≡ 1 m o d 2 5 , hence ( 2 n ) ≡ 0 m o d 1 0 and ( 1 n ) ≡ 7 6 m o d 1 0 0 .
Thank you for our clear and precise explanation.
This question is the same as the question from Canadial Olympial 2003
why is this wrong? we need to find (3^2002^2001)mod1000. but because of euler's totient THEOREM 3^400=1(mod1000) =>3^2000=1(mod1000) =>3^2002=9(mod1000) =>3^2002^2001=9^2001(mod1000) but again because of euler's totient THEOREM 9^400=1(mod1000) =>9^2000=1(mod1000) =>9^2001=9(mod1000) =>3^2002^2001=9(mod1000) PLEASE EXPLAIN!!!!
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[Note that this solution is not mine, I combined Pi Han's and George G's comments for clarity]
Because we're counting the last three digits, we are finding 2 0 0 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 1 0 0 0
Modular arithmetic: 2 0 0 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 1 0 0 0 = ( 2 0 0 3 m o d 1 0 0 0 ) 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 1 0 0 0 = 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 1 0 0 0
By Euler's totient function, a ϕ ( x ) ( m o d x ) ≡ 1 for coprime positive integers a , x
Because 3 and 1 0 0 0 are coprime positive integers, that is, gcd ( 3 , 1 0 0 0 ) = 1 , we can apply Euler's totient function
The next step is to find 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d ( ϕ ( 1 0 0 0 ) ) m o d 1 0 0 0
To evaluate ϕ ( 1 0 0 0 ) , we need to find all the prime factors of 1 0 0 0 , which are 2 and 5 , so ϕ ( 1 0 0 0 ) = 1 0 0 0 × ( 1 − 2 1 ) × ( 1 − 5 1 ) = 4 0 0
Then, 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 4 0 0 m o d 1 0 0 0
Similarly like above, apply modular arithmetic: 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 4 0 0 = ( 2 0 0 2 m o d 4 0 0 ) 2 0 0 1 = 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 4 0 0
You maybe tempted to apply the totient function again but note that 2 and 4 0 0 are not coprime. So we need to split the modulo into two (or more) numbers such that exactly one of them is divisible by 2
4 0 0 = 1 6 × 2 5
We would like to find 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 1 6 and 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 2 5 separately
For the first one, because 2 2 0 0 1 ÷ 2 4 is obviously an integer, it is simply equals to 0
For the second one, we can apply the totient function, 2 2 0 0 1 m o d ( ϕ ( 2 5 ) ) m o d 2 5
Like above, ϕ ( 2 5 ) = 2 5 × ( 1 − 5 1 ) = 2 0
2 2 0 0 1 m o d 2 0 m o d 2 5 = 2
Apply Chinese Remainder Theorem, you should get 2 2 0 0 1 m o d 4 0 0 = 3 5 2
So after all this simplification, we are left with 3 3 5 2 m o d 1 0 0 0
3 3 5 2 = ( 1 0 − 1 ) 1 7 6 ≡ ( 2 1 7 6 ) 1 0 2 − ( 1 1 7 6 ) 1 0 1 + 1 ≡ 2 4 1 m o d 1 0 0 0
But why not start with binomial? Let n = 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 / 2 = 1 0 0 1 ⋅ 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 0 , then 2 0 0 3 2 0 0 2 2 0 0 1 ≡ 3 2 n = ( 1 0 − 1 ) n ≡ ( 2 n ) 1 0 2 − ( 1 n ) 1 0 1 + 1 m o d 1 0 0 0 It's easy to show n ≡ 0 m o d 4 and n ≡ 1 m o d 2 5 , hence ( 2 n ) ≡ 0 m o d 1 0 and ( 1 n ) ≡ 7 6 m o d 1 0 0 .