Factorial-Quadratic Diophantine Equation

Find the total number of positive integer pairs ( n , m ) (n, m) that are solutions of the equation ( 2 n ) ! ( n ! ) 2 = m 2 \large \frac{(2n)!}{(n!)^2}=m^2 If the number of solutions is infinite, enter 1. -1. Provide proof of your answer.


The answer is 0.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

2 solutions

Mark Hennings
Jan 20, 2020

Erdos proved that ( n k ) \binom{n}{k} , for 3 k 1 2 n 3 \le k \le \tfrac12n is only ever the power of an integer in the case ( 50 3 ) = 14 0 2 \binom{50}{3} = 140^2 . Thus ( 2 n n ) \binom{2n}{n} is never a perfect square for n 3 n \ge 3 , and it is easy to check that ( 2 1 ) = 2 \binom{2}{1}=2 and ( 4 2 ) = 6 \binom{4}{2} = 6 are not perfect squares. Thus there are 0 \boxed{0} solutions.

Thank you for taking your time to write a solution to this problem, Mark!

Arturo Presa - 1 year, 4 months ago
Arturo Presa
Jan 19, 2020

By direct calculation, we can verify that the equation does not have any solution for n = 1 n=1 and n = 2. n=2. Thus, we can assume that n 3 n\geq 3 and are going to prove that the equation does not have any solution in this case either. Using Bertrand's Postulate , we can draw the conclusion that for any integer n 3 , n\geq 3, there is a prime number p p such that n < p < 2 n . n<p<2n. Since n 3 , n\geq 3, then p 2 > n 2 > 2 n . p^2 > n^2>2n. Now, we can use the property that the exponent of the prime number p p in the prime factorization of any number of the form r ! r! is given by the sum k = 1 r p k . \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\lfloor \frac{r}{p^k}\rfloor. where \lfloor \cdot \rfloor represents the floor function (for an explanation of this formula, use the following link ). Then the exponent of p p in the prime factorization of the number ( 2 n ) ! ( n ! ) 2 \frac{(2n)!}{(n!)^2} is k = 1 ( 2 n p k 2 n p k ) . \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}(\lfloor \frac{2n}{p^k}\rfloor-2\lfloor \frac{n}{p^k}\rfloor). Using the inequalities mentioned above for p p and n n , we obtain that the exponent must be 1. Hence the number ( 2 n ) ! ( n ! ) 2 \frac{(2n)!}{(n!)^2} cannot be a perfect square. Therefore, the number of integer solutions of the given equation is 0 . \boxed{0}.

Note : It is easy to see that ( 2 n ) ! ( n ! ) 2 \frac{(2n)!}{(n!)^2} is a positive integer number for any positive integer n , n, because it gives the total number of combinations of 2 n 2n elements taken n n at the time.

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...