FACTORIALS, FACTORIALS everywhere, not a single SOLUTION to see!!!

Solve in N(natural numbers) the equation:

1 k ! + 1 m ! + 1 n ! = 1 r ! \frac{1}{k!} + \frac{1}{m!} + \frac{1}{n!} = \frac{1}{r!}

Find the sum of all possible values of k,m,n and r.


The answer is 11.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

2 solutions

Ashutosh Kumar
Jun 4, 2015

It is quite easy actually. Note first that r < m i n ( k , m , n ) r<min(k,m,n)

where m i n ( x 1 , x 2 , . . . , x n ) min(x_{1},x_{2},...,x_{n}) denotes the minimum real out of the n 'n' real numbers in the brackets.

Without loss of generality, let us suppose that one of the numbers k k , m m and n n is the largest, say n n . i.e. n > m n>m and n > k n>k . (Note the strict inequalities) In such a case multiply throughout by n ! n! . We obtain:

( n ) × ( n 1 ) × . . . × ( k + 1 ) + ( n ) × ( n 1 ) × . . . × ( m + 1 ) + 1 (n)\times(n-1)\times...\times(k+1) + (n)\times(n-1)\times...\times(m+1) + 1

= ( n ) × ( n 1 ) × . . . × ( r + 1 ) = (n)\times(n-1)\times...\times(r+1)

Remainder left on division by n n is 1 1 on the left side but 0 0 on the right side. This is absurd for equal quantities. So, the assumption was wrong. There is no single maximum n 'n' .

Next, we suppose that two numbers out of k , m , n k,m,n are simultaneously maximum say m m and n n , i.e. m = n > k m=n>k . (Note the strict inequality).

With the same reasoning, this case fails and so this assumption is wrong. So,the only choice is all the terms are simultaneously equal (and then obviously maximum), i.e. k = m = n k=m=n .

Now, we get k ! = 3 × r ! k!=3\times r! (in fact k ! = m ! = n ! ) k!=m!=n!)

Now if k r k-r was 2 2 or more, atleast one even number must be multiplied to get k ! k! from r ! r! by successive multiplication: in other words k ! k! = ( e v e n ) × r ! (even)\times r! . But that is not so. So, r r and k k are consecutive, i.e. k = r + 1 k=r+1 .

Immediately, we get: r = 2 r=2 and k = 3 = m = n k=3=m=n as the only solution.

Ch Nikhil
Nov 28, 2014

only solution is (3,3,3,2)

You have seen the answer and typed it otherwise you would have posted a proper solution. You don't know the solution!

Saurabh Mallik - 6 years, 5 months ago

Can you please explain how and why? Thanks.

Satvik Golechha - 6 years, 6 months ago

Log in to reply

Hit and Trial!!!!!!!!!!

Saurav Pal - 6 years, 3 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...