The first few terms of the Fibonacci sequence are as follows: F 1 = 1 , F 5 = 5 , F 2 = 1 , F 3 = 2 , F 4 = 3 , F 6 = 8 , F 7 = 1 3 , F 8 = 2 1 , F 9 = 3 4 , … It just so happens that 5 , 1 3 , and 3 4 are also the hypotenuses of right triangles with all integer sides: ( 3 , 4 , 5 ) , ( 5 , 1 2 , 1 3 ) , ( 1 6 , 3 0 , 3 4 ) . Is every Fibonacci number F 2 n − 1 for all n ≥ 3 the hypotenuse of a right triangle with integer sides?
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
This is more clever, using ⎩ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎨ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎧ a = s 2 − t 2 b = 2 s t c = s 2 + t 2 a 2 + b 2 = c 2 To reduce the problem into partition F 2 n − 1 into sum of squares.
I found it quite remarkable to discover that alternate numbers in the sequence were always the sum of two squares and even more remarkable that the sum of squares of consecutive numbers in the sequence produced all these numbers.
Proving it made it all rather unremarkable.
Log in to reply
When learning Math I occasionally get astonished by some bizzare statements, but soon later their proofs just wash away such feelings and leave me an impression that every step just goes so naturally. Maybe it is part of the mathematical beauty, to finally change something unbelievable to a matter of course?
Log in to reply
Totally agree. Prior to today, if someone were to suggest there was a sequence of numbers Fn, which contained every combination of the sum-product of every pair of consecutive numbers - ie F(x)F(y) + F(x+1)F (y+1) - I would have expected that sequence to have quite few gaps.
It's just another interesting property of the Fibonacci series.
Lovely indeed. Curiously, but I suppose expectedly, the ratio of the sides of the triangles as n increases approaches 1,2, sqrt(5)
Log in to reply
Exactly! This follows directly from the fact that the ratio of two neighbouring terms in the Fibonacci Series has a limit of the golden ratio: lim (F n / F (n-1)) = φ = (1 + √5)/2, n->∞.
Applying Binet's Formula, we have F n = 5 1 [ ϕ n − ψ n ] n ≥ 0 where ϕ = 2 1 ( 1 + 5 ) ψ = 2 1 ( 1 − 5 ) so that ϕ + ψ = 1 , ϕ ψ = − 1 , and ϕ 2 − ϕ − 1 = ψ 2 − ψ − 1 = 0 . Then 2 F n F n − 1 F n − 1 F n + 2 = 5 2 ( ϕ 2 n + 1 + ψ 2 n + 1 − ϕ n ψ n + 1 − ϕ n + 1 ψ n ) = 5 2 [ ϕ 2 n + 1 + ψ 2 n + 1 + ( − 1 ) n + 1 ] = 5 1 ( ϕ 2 n + 1 + ψ 2 n + 1 − ϕ n − 1 ψ n + 2 − ϕ n + 2 ψ n − 1 ] = 5 1 [ ϕ 2 n + 1 + ψ 2 n + 1 + ( − 1 ) n ( ϕ 3 + ψ 3 ) ] = 5 1 [ ϕ 2 n + 1 + ψ 2 n + 1 + 4 ( − 1 ) n ] so that ( 2 F n F n + 1 ) 2 + ( F n − 1 F n + 2 ) 2 = 2 5 1 [ 4 ( ϕ 2 n + 1 + ψ 2 n + 1 ) 2 + 8 ( − 1 ) n + 1 ( ϕ 2 n + 1 + ψ 2 n + 1 ) + 4 + ( ϕ 2 n + 1 + ψ 2 n + 1 ) 2 + 8 ( − 1 ) n ( ϕ 2 n + 1 + ψ 2 n + 1 ) + 1 6 ] = 5 1 [ ( ϕ 2 n + 1 + ψ 2 n + 1 ) 2 + 4 ] = 5 1 [ ϕ 2 n + 1 − ψ 2 n + 1 ] 2 and hence ( 2 F n F n + 1 ) 2 + ( F n − 1 F n + 2 ) 2 = F 2 n + 1 2 for all n ≥ 1 , and the two terms 2 F n F n + 1 and F n − 1 F n + 2 are nonzero for n ≥ 2 , and hence F 2 n + 1 is the hypotenuse of a Pythagorean triad for all n ≥ 2 , making the answer Y e s .
Rather more simply: F(N)^2 + F(N+1)^2 = [{phi^n - (-1/phi)^n}^2 + {phi^(n+1) - (-1/phi)^(n+1)}^2]/5, which boils down to [phi^(2n+1).{phi + 1/phi} + [phi^-(2n+1}.{phi + 1/phi}}/5, which equals F(2N+1) since phi + 1/phi = sqrt(5)
Any sum of two squares p 2 + q 2 is the hypotenuse in a Pythagorean triple: ( a , b , c ) = ( p 2 − q 2 , 2 p q , p 2 + q 2 ) for some integers p , q .
Since F 2 n − 1 = F n 2 + F n − 1 2 , we simple set p = F n and q = F n + 1 to obtain the desired conclusion.
I think the second statement requires some sort of proof.
We can derive it directly using the formula. Most elegant way is to use linear algebra.
I love the proofs. I solved the problem by observation. Unfortunately I didn’t notice that F(2n-1) = Fn^2 + F(n-1)^2. I saw a recursion that produced all the Pythagorean triples. Given Pythagorean triples (a(n-2), b(n-2), F(n-2)) and (a(n), b(n) and F(n)), the next triple is given by a(n+2) = a(n-2) + F(n), b(n+2) = b(n)+F(n+1) - a(n-2), and, of course, F(n+2).
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
It's easy to discover that F 2 n − 1 = F n 2 + F n − 1 2 , thus we have F 2 n − 1 2 = ( F n 2 ) 2 + ( F n − 1 2 ) 2 + 2 F n 2 F n − 1 2 = ( F n 2 − F n − 1 2 ) 2 + ( 2 F n F n − 1 ) 2
Since all terms here appear as squares of positive integers, the statement is proved.
(We can prove that F 2 n − 1 = F n 2 + F n − 1 2 in this way:
F 2 n − 1 = F 2 n − 3 + F 2 n − 2 = F 1 F 2 n − 3 + F 2 F 2 n − 2 = F 1 F 2 n − 3 + F 2 ( F 2 n − 3 + F 2 n − 4 ) = ( F 1 + F 2 ) F 2 n − 3 + F 2 F 2 n − 4 = F 2 F 2 n − 4 + F 3 F 2 n − 3 = F 3 F 2 n − 5 + F 4 F 2 n − 4 = … = F n − 1 2 + F n 2 .
Or simply take the closed-form formula (Binet's formula) and verify it.)
---------Update---------
Another way to prove that F 2 n − 1 = F n 2 + F n − 1 2 using induction. Less elegant than the method mentioned above, but maybe easier to think of and more natural.
Suppose that F 2 n − 1 = F n 2 + F n − 1 2 holds for all n ≤ k . Thus we have F 2 k − 1 = F k 2 + F k − 1 2 and F 2 k − 3 = F k − 1 2 + F k − 2 2 . It is to show that the statement also holds for n = k + 1 , that is, F 2 k + 1 = F k + 1 2 + F k 2 .
The first step is to find the relation between F 2 k + 1 , F 2 k − 1 , and F 2 k − 3 .
F 2 k + 1 = F 2 k + F 2 k − 1 = 2 F 2 k − 1 + F 2 k − 2 = 3 F 2 k − 2 + 2 F 2 k − 3
From the two equations above we can eliminate F 2 k − 2 , and get
F 2 k + 1 = 3 F 2 k − 1 − F 2 k − 3 = 3 ( F k 2 + F k − 1 2 ) − ( F k − 1 2 + F k − 2 2 ) = 3 F k 2 + 2 F k − 1 2 − F k − 2 2 = 3 F k 2 + 2 F k − 1 2 − ( F k − F k − 1 ) 2 = 2 F k 2 + F k − 1 2 + 2 F k F k − 1 = ( F k + F k − 1 ) 2 + F k 2 = F k + 1 2 + F k 2 .
And so we have our statement proved.