n = 0 ∑ ∞ 3 n F n = ?
Details and Assumptions
F n is the n th Fibonacci number, with F 1 = F 2 = 1 .
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All three solutions are fantastic. Well done!
Solution by algebraic manipulation:
Let S = n = 0 ∑ ∞ 3 n F n . It can be seen that
n = 0 ∑ ∞ 3 n + 2 F n + n = 0 ∑ ∞ 3 n + 1 F n + 3 0 F 0 + 3 1 F 1 − 3 1 F 0 = n = 2 ∑ ∞ 3 n F n
since F n − 2 + F n − 1 = F n (plus we have some leftover terms), implying
9 S + 3 S + 3 0 F 0 + 3 1 F 1 − 3 1 F 0 = 9 4 S + 3 1 = S
Solving the obtained equation gives us
S = n = 0 ∑ ∞ 3 n F n = 0 . 6
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I was so close to this when I gave up!! Beautiful solution! thank you :D
Solution by geometric progression:
Recall that n = 0 ∑ ∞ x n = 1 − x 1 for all ∣ x ∣ < 1 , and that F n = 5 ϕ n − ( − ϕ ) − n .
Thus, we can rewrite our sum as
n = 0 ∑ ∞ 3 n F n = 5 1 ( n = 0 ∑ ∞ 3 n ϕ n − n = 0 ∑ ∞ 3 n ( − ϕ ) − n )
Both sums clearly satisfy the criterion ∣ x ∣ < 1 , so we can proceed.
5 1 ( n = 0 ∑ ∞ 3 n ϕ n − n = 0 ∑ ∞ 3 n ( − ϕ ) − n ) = 5 1 ( 1 − 3 ϕ 1 − 1 + 3 ϕ 1 1 )
After a bit of fiddling, we get that
5 1 ( 1 − 3 ϕ 1 − 1 + 3 ϕ 1 1 ) = 0 . 6
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For those who want to know how to derive the general formula of the nth Fibonacci number, take a look at this amazing note by Daniel Chiu
who is " Challenge master " ? Is Calvin sir ?
Let the sum be expressed by S . S = 3 0 F 0 + 3 1 F 1 + 3 2 F 2 + . . . with F 0 = 0 3 S = 3 F 0 + 3 0 F 1 + 3 1 F 2 + 3 2 F 3 + . . .
Adding the two yields
4 S = 3 F 0 + 3 0 F 0 + F 1 + 3 1 F 1 + F 2 + 3 2 F 2 + F 3 + . . .
4 S = 3 F 0 + 3 0 F 2 + 3 1 F 3 + 3 2 F 4 + . . .
9 S = 9 F 0 + 3 F 1 + 3 0 F 2 + 3 1 F 3 + 3 2 F 4 + . . .
9 S − 9 F 0 − 3 F 1 = 3 0 F 2 + 3 1 F 3 + 3 2 F 4 + . . .
4 S = 9 S + 3 F 0 − 9 F 0 − 3 F 1
5 S = 3 F 1
S = 5 3 F 1 = 5 3 ∗ 1 = 5 3 = 0 . 6
Good job, Jason It is possible to reduce one or two steps.
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Yes can go from
4 S = 3 F 0 + 3 0 F 2 + 3 1 F 3 + 3 2 F 4 + . . .
add 6 F 0 + 3 F 1 to both sides and get
4 S + 6 F 0 + 3 F 1 = 9 F 0 + 3 F 1 + 3 0 F 2 + 3 1 F 3 + 3 2 F 4 + . . .
this equals 4 S + 6 F 0 + 3 F 1 = 9 S which when F 0 and F 1 values are plugged in
5 S = 3 F 1
S = 5 3 F 1 = 5 3 ∗ 1 = 5 3 = 0 . 6
but I am not sure if reduces any steps or not.
an unreliable but a pretty easy method... adding the first 6 or 7 terms of the series would give you 0.58somethin.. As you go on adding you realise that the series converges since the succeeding terms go on becoming smaller and smaller. Hence the most logical convergence point for this series would be 0.6!!!
Yeah... that is what an engineer like me does, and it works for the ordinary world... but it come too short for the realms of Math. The 3 solutions posted by Jake Lai are brilliant... the first one a masterpiece.
I got the answer 0.6 following your method, then almost sure of the result I backtracked for the procedure and I struggled for the whole afternoon. Finally I got the answer, my solution is very similar to Jason Hughes, mine not at neat , somewhat more peasant but far from the excellence of the others.
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There is an algebraic solution (manipulation), as well a GP solution (Binet's), but here's Jake's quick-n-easy solution by generating functions.
It is well-known (and easily proven) result that
g ( x ) = 1 − x − x 2 x = n = 0 ∑ ∞ F n x n
for all ∣ x ∣ < ϕ 1 ≈ 0 . 6 1 8 , where ϕ = 2 1 + 5 is the golden ratio.
Since ∣ 3 1 ∣ is clearly less than 0 . 6 1 8 , we can just substitute x = 3 1 . Thus,
n = 0 ∑ ∞ 3 n F n = 1 − 3 1 − 3 2 1 3 1 = 0 . 6