Find the value of 2 S + 1 2S+1

Calculus Level 4

S = n = 1 sin ( n ) n \large S=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\sin (n)}{n}

If S S in the equation above exists, find 2 S + 1 2S+1 .


The answer is 3.14159265.

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1 solution

Haroun Meghaichi
Jul 18, 2014

We know that : k = 1 x k k = log ( 1 x ) \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{x^k }{k} = -\log(1-x) For any x x such that x 1 |x|\leq 1 and x 1 x\neq 1 , then S = Im n = 1 e i n n = Im ( log ( 1 e i ) ) S= \text{Im} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{e^{i n}}{n} = -\text{Im}(\log(1-e^{i} )) Now we use some trigonometry to get : 1 e i = 1 cos 1 i sin 1 = 2 sin 1 2 ( sin 1 2 i cos 1 2 ) = 2 exp ( ( 1 π ) i 2 ) sin 1 2 1-e^i = 1-\cos 1 -i \sin 1 = 2\sin \frac{1}{2}\left(\sin \frac{1}{2} - i \cos \frac{1}{2} \right) = 2\exp\left(\frac{(1-\pi)i}{2}\right) \sin \frac{1}{2} So S = Im ( log ( 1 e i ) ) = Im ( ( π 1 ) i 2 log ( 2 sin 1 2 ) ) = π 1 2 S= \text{Im}(\log(1-e^{i} )) = \text{Im}\left(\frac{(\pi-1)i}{2} - \log \left(2\sin \frac{1}{2}\right) \right) = \frac{\pi-1}{2} Then the result is π \boxed{\pi} .

Generalization : for any x ( 0 , 2 π ) x\in (0,2\pi) f ( x ) = n = 1 sin ( n x ) n = π x 2 f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\sin (nx)}{n} = \frac{\pi-x}{2} Note that f f is 2 π 2\pi -periodic.

Another method : Think about the 2 π 2\pi -Fourier series of x π x 2 x\mapsto \frac{\pi-x}{2} on [ 0 , 2 π ) [0,2\pi) with canceled continuity at 0 0 .

I recalled the series 1 + x + x^2 + x^3... = 1/(1-x) and integrated both sides to obtain x + x^2/2 + x^3/3 + x^4/4 + ... = log(1/(1-x)).

Carlos Martin - 6 years, 10 months ago

@Haroun Meghaichi Great solution! I just wanted to mention that there are a couple of small mistakes in the last line prior to the 'Generalization'. There should be a negative sign in front of Im(log( 1 e i ) ) 1 - e^{i})) . Also, I think it should the next expression should be Im ( ( π 1 ) i 2 log 2 (\dfrac{(\pi - 1)i}{2} - \log{2} - log sin 1 2 ) \dfrac{1}{2}) . Otherwise, elegantly done. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 6 years, 11 months ago

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Thanks for pointing that, the latex here confuses me sometimes. Sorry.

Haroun Meghaichi - 6 years, 11 months ago

Solved in exactly similar way except the generalization .

Shriram Lokhande - 6 years, 10 months ago

I used the same method. Out of curiosity, what made you think of the series for -log(1-x)?

Carlos Martin - 6 years, 10 months ago

Why is e used as the base of log

T Chingkheinganba Meitei - 6 years, 10 months ago

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Simply because the first series converges to it.

Haroun Meghaichi - 6 years, 10 months ago

It didnt clicked me! So i used C++ ... I apologize for that.

Md Zuhair - 2 years, 3 months ago

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