Finding Infinite Areas are Awesome!

Calculus Level 3

If the area enclosed by the equation:

y = 360 36 + x 2 y = \dfrac {360}{36 + x^2}

and the x x axis can be represented as a π a \pi , find a a


The answer is 60.

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3 solutions

Sharky Kesa
Sep 12, 2014

From this question, what we are being asked is to find

360 36 + x 2 d x \displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \dfrac {360}{36 + x^2} \mathrm{d} x

We can split this into

0 360 36 + x 2 d x + 0 360 36 + x 2 d x \displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{0} \dfrac {360}{36 + x^2} \mathrm{d} x + \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \dfrac {360}{36 + x^2} \mathrm{d} x

From this, we can change both these integrals into

lim n n 0 360 36 + x 2 d x + lim m 0 m 360 36 + x 2 d x \displaystyle \lim_{n \rightarrow -\infty} \int_{n}^0 \dfrac {360}{36 + x^2} \mathrm{d} x+ \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} \int_0^{m} \dfrac {360}{36 + x^2} \mathrm{d} x

Now, let's work on the integrals.

360 36 + x 2 d x \displaystyle \int \dfrac {360}{36 + x^2} \mathrm{d} x

Well, the denominator looks promising since it is in the form of a 2 + b 2 a^2 + b^2 . In this case, a = 6 a = 6 and b = x b = x . We can now try to substitute x x with a different value. For this, we will do

x = 6 tan θ x = 6 \tan \theta

Now to make sure that we can substitute back, let's change the subject to θ \theta .

x 6 = tan θ \dfrac {x}{6} = \tan \theta

arctan ( x 6 ) = θ \arctan ( \dfrac {x}{6}) = \theta

We also need to find d x \mathrm{d} x of 6 tan θ 6 \tan \theta . Simplifying, we get

6 sec 2 θ d θ 6 \sec^2 \theta \mathrm{d} \theta

Inputting these values back in the integral, we get

360 6 sec 2 θ 36 + ( 6 tan θ ) 2 d θ \displaystyle \int \dfrac {360 \cdot 6 \sec^2 \theta}{36 + (6 \tan \theta)^2} \mathrm{d} \theta

which is simplified as

360 6 sec 2 θ 36 + 36 tan 2 θ d θ \displaystyle \int \dfrac {360 \cdot 6 \sec^2 \theta}{36 + 36 \tan^2 \theta} \mathrm{d} \theta

The denominator can be factorised to

360 6 sec 2 θ 36 ( 1 + tan 2 θ d θ \displaystyle \int \dfrac {360 \cdot 6 \sec^2 \theta}{36(1 + \tan^2 \theta} \mathrm{d} \theta

which simplifies the fraction as

10 6 sec 2 θ 1 + tan 2 θ d θ \displaystyle \int \dfrac {10 \cdot 6 \sec^2 \theta}{1 + \tan^2 \theta} \mathrm{d} \theta

Notice that 1 + tan 2 θ 1 + \tan^2 \theta can be written as sec 2 θ \sec^2 \theta . With this in mind, we simplify further to just

60 d θ \displaystyle \int 60 \mathrm{d} \theta

or

60 d θ 60 \displaystyle \int \mathrm{d} \theta

which is simply

60 θ + C 60 \theta + C

Now we substitute the value of x x back in to get

60 ( arctan ( x 6 ) ) 60 (\arctan \left (\dfrac {x}{6}) \right)

or

60 arctan ( x 6 ) 60 \arctan ( \dfrac {x}{6})

Now we take this value back to the limits. Sustituting them, we get

lim n ( 60 arctan ( x 6 ) ) n 0 + lim m ( 60 arctan ( x 6 ) ) 0 m \displaystyle \lim_{n \rightarrow -\infty} (60 \arctan \left (\dfrac {x}{6}) \right)|_{n}^{0} + \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} (60 \arctan \left (\dfrac {x}{6}) \right)|_{0}^{m}

Now, if we simplify this, we get

lim n ( 60 arctan ( 0 6 ) 60 arctan ( n 6 ) ) + lim m ( 60 arctan ( m 6 ) 60 arctan ( 0 6 ) ) \displaystyle \lim_{n \rightarrow -\infty} (60 \arctan (\dfrac {0}{6}) - 60 \arctan (\dfrac {n}{6})) + \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} (60 \arctan (\dfrac {m}{6}) - 60 \arctan (\dfrac {0}{6}))

Well, arctan ( 0 ) \arctan (0) is just 0. For -\infty , it's π 2 \frac {-\pi}{2} and for \infty , it's π 2 \frac {\pi}{2} . Inputting these values, we get

( 60 0 60 π 2 ) + ( 60 π 2 60 0 ) (60 \cdot 0 - 60 \cdot \dfrac {-\pi}{2}) + (60 \cdot \dfrac {\pi}{2} - 60 \cdot 0)

or just

30 π + 30 π = 60 π 30 \pi + 30 \pi = 60 \pi

Therefore, 60 60 is our answer. Upvotes would be appreciated since I spent over an hour on this solution.

Nice Solution.

Keshav Tiwari - 6 years, 9 months ago

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Thanks. :D

Sharky Kesa - 6 years, 9 months ago

Nice solution! It was a good intuition for me!`

Kartik Sharma - 6 years, 9 months ago
Jubayer Nirjhor
Sep 12, 2014

Consider the integral 1 a 2 + x 2 d x \displaystyle\int \dfrac{1}{a^2+x^2}\text d x . Let x = a tan z x=a\tan z so that d x = a sec 2 z \text d x=a \sec^2 z . Putting these yields a sec 2 z a 2 ( 1 + tan 2 z ) d z = sec 2 z a sec 2 z d z = 1 a d z = z a + C = arctan ( x / a ) a + C . \int \dfrac{a \sec^2 z}{a^2\left(1+\tan^2 z\right)}\text d z=\int \dfrac{\sec^2 z}{a \sec^2 z}\text d z=\int \dfrac 1 a\text d z=\dfrac{z}{a}+\text C=\dfrac{\arctan(x/a)}{a}+\text C. Notice that the function y = 1 a 2 + x 2 y=\dfrac{1}{a^2+x^2} is even. So we have 1 a 2 + x 2 d x = 2 0 1 a 2 + x 2 d x = 2 arctan ( x / a ) a 0 = π a . \int_{-\infty}^\infty \dfrac{1}{a^2+x^2}\text d x=2\int_0^\infty \dfrac{1}{a^2+x^2}\text d x=2\left.\dfrac{\arctan(x/a)}{a}\right|_{0}^\infty=\dfrac{\pi}{a}. Now plugging in a = 6 a=6 and multiplying by 360 360 gives our desired answer 360 π 6 = 60 π \dfrac{360\pi}{6}=60\pi .

Good solution.

Sharky Kesa - 6 years, 9 months ago
Michael Mendrin
Sep 12, 2014

I still have that "Table of Integrals" book with me since high school days, and this one is an oldie

1 a 2 + x 2 d x = 1 a A r c T a n ( x a ) \displaystyle\int { \dfrac { 1 }{ { a }^{ 2 }+{ x }^{ 2 } } } dx=\dfrac { 1 }{ a } ArcTan\left( \dfrac { x }{ a } \right)

I didn't evaluate this integral as you have here. Thanks for the demonstration.

You're welcome. :D

Sharky Kesa - 6 years, 9 months ago

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