This is the graph of r = sin θ sin 4 θ in polar coordinates.
Rotating the graph about the x -axis produces a volume of b a π , where a and b are coprime positive integers.
What is a + b ?
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Surely some double counting in the "tail" is involved here. I concentrated on the part above the x-axis, i.e. for pi/2 < theta < 3pi/4. It is easy to establish that the minimum x value occurs when theta = 2pi/3, so the calculation of the volume is in two stages: (1) from pi/2 to 2pi/3, giving 13/60 pi, and (2) from 2pi/3 to 3pi/3, giving pi/20. [Incidentally I did all my integration w.r.t. theta, having established that (sin 4theta)^3/(sin theta)^2 = sin(10theta) + 2sin(8theta) + 3sin(6theta) +4sin(4theta) + 2sin(2theta)] If you add my 2 results to the 12pi/5 for the "body" you do indeed get 8pi/3, but this involves double counting the part swept out by the "lower" part of the tail. If we avoid this we get (12/5 + 13/60)pi = 157pi/60, so the answer is 217. However I understood the question to require the volume swept out by the SMALLER LOOP ALONE, not by the space underneath it, forming a sort of hollow cone. Working this way my answer was (12/5 + 13/60 - 1/20)pi = 77pi/30, giving my answer as 107.
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I am integrating the tail from 4 1 π to 2 1 π , which means I am sweeping out the region below the axis (that is why I have a minus sign in front of my calculation for V 1 ). If I had integrated from 2 1 π to 4 3 π using the top half of the tail, I would get the same answer. There is no need to do the integration in two stages, as my proof shows. I am looking at small area elements r d r d θ , which are swept around circles of radius r sin θ , making for infinitesimal tori of volume 2 π r 2 sin θ d r d θ , and I then integrate over the suitable region.
I note that you are integrating from 2 1 π to 3 2 π , and then from 3 2 π to 3 3 π = π . Is that the cause of your error?
It may be just a matter of semantics, but what do we mean by "volume swept out"? In the case of the tail, the SAME volume is swept out by the lower half of the upper tail (theta = 2pi/3 to 3pi/4) as is PART of that swept out by the upper half (theta = pi/2 to 2pi/3), and is therefore included twice in your summation. The part swept out by the inside of the small "loop" is also included in the latter part (theta = pi/2 to 2pi/3). I agree that it doesn't matter whether you consider the "upper tail" (pi/4 to pi/2) or the lower one (pi/2 to 3pi/4). But it DOES matter if you include the same volume twice - by that argument the volume swept out by the body should be 24pi/5, since we include theta = 3pi/4 to pi as well as 0 to pi/4. And perhaps an extra 13/60 from the lower loop??? That way madness lies. (Sorry - my 3pi/3 was a typo, and should of course have been 3pi/4) I do not accept that I'm in error, though I do see that there is some ambiguity in the question. The minus sign that you refer to is to allow for the fact that y (and therefore y^3) is negative for this part, but it does not take into account the necessary subtraction of lower part of loop from upper part to form the torus element.
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I am not subtracting the volume of revolution of the bottom half of the tail from the volume of revolution of the top half. I am taking each small area of element inside the tail and calculating the volume of revolution that each such area creates. Every part of the upper half of the tail is described in polar coordinates by ( r , θ ) , where 0 ≤ r ≤ sin θ sin 4 θ and 2 1 π ≤ θ ≤ 4 3 π . I am integrating the infinitesimal volume 2 π r 2 sin θ d r d θ over that range of r and θ . No subtraction is required.
If you want to solve the problem by subtraction of two volumes of revolution, look at David's solution. You will be integrating (for the tail) ∫ − 2 1 0 π ( y 1 2 − y 2 2 ) d x where y 1 and y 2 are the upper and lower heights of the tail at the coordinate x . That approach will not end up with you needing to integrate sin 2 θ sin 3 4 θ d θ .
Where can I find intuition behind the equation on the first line? This "volume of revolution with double integration" approach.
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Consider a small area element d x d y positioned at ( x , y ) inside the fish. After revolution, that area is swept through a circle of radius y , and so creates a torus-like shape of approximate volume 2 π y d x d y . Adding these volumes up to get the overall voume of revolution is the first part of the first line. I then interpret that result in polar coordinates.
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Do you maybe have a diagram to visualize this better? I'm having trouble understanding how integrating a torus-like volume element with respect to both x and y give us a solid enclosed region
Ah wait, I get it now, I was looking at it all wrong. Thanks! I can't believe I never knew about this... All I knew was using single variable calculus solid of revolution methods, and it was a pain to convert the polar equation to cartesian, I figured there must be an easier way and I was right after reading your solution!
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could you use any program to answer questions like this? Would it understand it? Thanks
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https://www.whoishostingthis.com/resources/math-languages/
Nice job!!! Here's a Pyhonic version.
could you please explain for those who "don't dig" why 2 pi Y*dxdy?
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Imsgine a small element of area, between x and x + δ x and between y and y + δ y . If this element of area is rotated about the x -axis, it forms an annulus of radius y and cross-sectional area δ x δ y . This has approximate volume 2 π y δ x δ y . Adding these up, and letting the dimension of the area element tend to zero, we obtain ∫ 2 π y d x d y As the volume of revolution.
Using the double angle identities, r = sin θ sin 4 θ converts to r = 4 cos θ ( cos 2 θ − sin 2 θ ) , using x = r cos θ and y = r sin θ , it further converts to r = 4 r x ( r 2 x 2 − r 2 y 2 ) or r 4 = 4 x 3 − 4 x y 2 , and using r 2 = x 2 + y 2 , it converts to ( x 2 + y 2 ) 2 = 4 x 3 − 4 x y 2 , which can be rearranged to y = ± ± 2 x 2 x + 1 − x 2 − 2 x .
Now y = 2 x 2 x + 1 − x 2 − 2 x has real solutions from − 2 1 ≤ x ≤ 4 (for the body and tail of the fish) and y = − 2 x 2 x + 1 − x 2 − 2 x has real solutions from − 2 1 ≤ x ≤ 0 (for the tail of the fish).
A rotation around the x -axis for the body of the fish gives cross-sections of circles, and so its volume is V b o d y = ∫ 0 4 π r 2 d x = π ∫ 0 4 ( 2 x 2 x + 1 − x 2 − 2 x ) d x = π ( 3 2 x 2 x + 1 3 − 1 5 2 2 x + 1 5 − 3 1 x 3 − x 2 ) ] 0 4 = 5 1 2 π .
A rotation around the x -axis for the tail of the fish gives cross-sections of washers, and so its volume is V t a i l = ∫ − 2 1 0 ( π R 2 − π r 2 ) d x = π ∫ − 2 1 0 ( ( − 2 x 2 x + 1 − x 2 − 2 x ) − ( 2 x 2 x + 1 − x 2 − 2 x ) ) d x = π ∫ − 2 1 0 − 4 x 2 x + 1 d x = π ( − 3 4 x 2 x + 1 3 + 1 5 4 2 x + 1 5 ) ] − 2 1 0 = 1 5 4 π .
The total volume of the fish is V = V b o d y + V t a i l = 5 1 2 π + 1 5 4 π = 3 8 π , so a = 8 and b = 3 , and a + b = 1 1 .
I like that the top solution uses shells and the second solution uses washers/cylinders (upvoting this one because it's the way I did it).
By the way, I think it's easier to read if you just solve for y 2 instead of y , since y 2 is all you care about for the integrals.
A less elegant approach:
Clearly y = r ⋅ sin ( θ ) and x = r ⋅ cos ( θ ) , and since solving r = sin ( θ ) sin ( 4 θ ) = 0 , 0 < θ < 2 π yields θ = 4 π , the volume of revolution of the fish's body can be given by V body = ∫ x : θ = 4 π x : θ = 0 π ⋅ y 2 d x = ∫ x : θ = 4 π x : θ = 0 π ⋅ sin 2 ( 4 θ ) ⋅ d x d θ d x = ∫ 4 π 0 π ⋅ sin 2 ( 4 θ ) ⋅ ( 1 − cos ( 2 θ ) 2 sin ( 6 θ ) − 2 sin ( 4 θ ) − 2 sin ( 2 θ ) ) d θ = 5 1 2 π . To find the volume of revolution of the fish's tail, we first determine the value of θ in the range 4 π < θ < 2 π for which the value of y ′ (with respect to x ) is infinite. This can be done by maximising x through solving the equation d θ d ( r ⋅ cos ( θ ) ) = 0 , 4 π < θ < 2 π , which yields θ = 3 π . So we split the tail at this value of θ , making the volume of revolution of the fish's tail equal to V tail = ∫ x : θ = 3 π x : θ = 2 π π ⋅ sin 2 ( 4 θ ) ⋅ d x d θ d x − ( ∫ x : θ = 3 π x : θ = 4 π π ⋅ sin 2 ( 4 θ ) ⋅ d x d θ d x ) = 1 2 0 4 1 π − 4 0 3 π = 1 5 4 π . Hence, the total volume of the solid of revolution is equal to V body + V tail = 5 1 2 π + 1 5 4 π = 3 8 π , making the answer 8 + 3 = 1 1 .
Thanks. This last method is easier to understand for me.
Just a question on the graph. Since sin(4x) = 4cos^3(x) sin(x)-4cos(x) sin^3(x), then sin(4x)/sin(x) = 4cos(x){cos^2(x)-sin^2(x)} = 4cos(x) cos(2x)=r. However, at x=pi, r=4 (-1)*1 = -4 which is not on the graph. Why am I unable to get the graph ? Thanks!
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The point ( r , θ ) = ( − 4 , π ) is on the graph of r = sin ( θ ) sin ( 4 θ ) ; remember that because θ = π , a radius of − 4 means that it extends from left to right. Another way to consider it is that the polar points ( − 4 , π ) and ( 4 , 0 ) are actually both equivalent to ( 4 , 0 ) on the Cartesian plane.
By substituting r = x 2 + y 2 and θ = tan − 1 ( x y ) ,
we have x 2 + y 2 = sin ( tan − 1 ( x y ) ) sin ( 4 tan − 1 ( x y ) )
= cos ( tan − 1 ( x y ) ) cos ( 2 tan − 1 ( x y ) )
= − ( ( x y ) 2 + 1 ) 2 3 ( x y − 1 ) ( x y + 1 )
Squaring both sides,
x 2 + y 2 = − ( x 2 + y 2 ) 3 1 6 ( x 3 − x y 2 ) 2
( x 2 + y 2 ) 4 = 1 6 ( x 3 − x y 2 ) 2
( x 2 + y 2 ) 2 = 4 ( x 3 − x y 2 ) (Positive)
The equation can be rewritten as
y = f ( x ) = − x 2 + 2 x 2 + 2 x 3 − 2 x for the upper part above x-axis
Domain is − 2 1 ≤ x ≤ 4
y = g ( x ) = − x 2 − 2 x 2 + 2 x 3 − 2 x for the lower part above x-axis
Domain is − 2 1 ≤ x ≤ 0
So the volume is π ∫ − 2 1 4 ( f ( x ) ) 2 − π ∫ − 2 1 0 ( g ( x ) ) 2 = 3 8 π
(As the outermost surd is removed due to it being squared, the integration is not difficult to be calculated)
The answer is 8 + 3 = 1 1
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The volume of revolution of the fish's "body" is V 0 = ∬ x , y ≥ 0 2 π y d x d y = 2 π ∫ 0 4 1 π ∫ 0 sin θ sin 4 θ r sin θ r d r d θ = 3 2 π ∫ 0 4 1 π ( sin θ sin 4 θ ) 3 sin θ d θ = 3 2 π ∫ 0 4 1 π sin 2 θ sin 3 4 θ d θ = 3 1 2 8 π ∫ 0 4 1 π cos 3 2 θ cos 3 θ sin θ d θ = 3 1 2 8 π ∫ 2 1 1 ( 2 x 2 − 1 ) 3 x 3 d x = 5 1 2 π and, similarly, the volume of revolution of the "tail" is V 1 = − 2 π ∫ 4 1 π 2 1 π ∫ 0 sin θ sin 4 θ r sin θ r d r d θ = − 3 1 2 8 π ∫ 0 2 1 ( 2 x 2 − 1 ) 3 x 3 d x = 1 5 4 π and so the total volume of revolution is V 0 + V 1 = 3 8 π , making the answer 8 + 3 = 1 1 .