This set of five cards is shuffled together, and then two are randomly drawn, in order.
What is the probability that the second card has a greater number on it than the first?
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As in many of the problems in Brilliant, this one is stated in an ambiguous manner. Is it shuffled after the picture or is the picture representative of the shuffled deck?
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The problem states cards are drawn randomly from the set. So it really doesn't matter whether they were shuffled first or not.
The answer is 36%. Because there are 25 squares but only 9 have the 2 card greater then the 1
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5 of the squares are not possible, because they represent the same card twice.
I got 45% by averaging the percentage of my next card being greater then the first (4 =.75, 4=.75, 6=.5, 7=.25, 8= 0. [2.25/5= .45]
The solution is simple and understandable. I accept it. But I can't figure why I got it wrong: if I draw the 8 the first time, there's 0% chance the next one will be greater. There's a 25% chance if the first one is 7. There's 50% for 6. And 75% for 4. The chances for every number to get picked the first time is 1/5, except the 4, which is 2/5. So we have 2/5 chances to have 75% chance the second time (because there's 2/5 chance the get a 4 the first time and if that happens then we have 75% chances to pick a greater one). By the same logic, there are 2/5 chances to pick a card (7 and 8) that gives us 0% and 25%. I figured these two sort of balance each other. And then there's the 1/5 chance to pick the 6 the first time, which gives us 50% for the next round. So I chose exactly 50% as my answer. I can see I'm wrong, but I don't know why.
Another solution is (4 ,4,6,7,8) = L,W,W,W. (4,4 ,6,7,8) = L,W,W,W. (4,4,6 ,7,8) = L,L,W,W. (4,4,6,7 ,8) = W,W,W,P. (4,4,6,7,8*) = L,L,L,L. So now we have 9Wins/20Total = 45% (easy and simple) . *=current player
Well, the first card being greater than the second is symmetric to the first card being less than the second, and since there exists a possibility where the two numbers are the same, we must have the probability the second card is greater than the first is less than 50%.
Just to explain a little more about what "by symmetry" means here:
Consider an alternate version of the problem with the cards 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8. Any draw where the second card is greater than the first also has a matching situation where the second card is less than the first. Since every pair that can be drawn can be matched in this way, we can split our possible pair draws into two equally sized sets. This means, in this circumstance, there is a 50% chance for the second card to greater, and a 50% chance for the second card to be less.
Now, change the problem back to the original: 4, 4, 6, 7, 8. We still have the symmetry split into two sets, but we also have a third set composed of the "tie" draws (4 red -> 4 black and 4 black -> 4 red). This means the probability the second card is greater must be something less than 50% due to the presence of the "tie" set reducing the symmetrical 50% value.
Need a proof that both probabilities are equal
That's a really nice way to think about it!
Since the probability of drawing a greater number second is the same as drawing a smaller number, they have equal probabilities. Also, we know that you can draw an equal amount with two fours, so the chance of drawing a greater card second would be half of 1-P(same card), so it would be 1/2-something, so it would be less than 50%.
There are 5 independent choices of the 1st card.
Once the first card is chosen we have 4 cards to choose from.
Therefore we have 4 * 5 = 20 choices for the second card (while we always choose from the set of 4 cards, these sets are always different by one member and can be seen as different "universes", e.g. universe in which 1st card is "8", the universe of the 1st "6" and so on).
Now, the chance to take a greater card then the first one is:
1st card | Number of successful choices |
4 | 3 |
6 | 2 |
7 | 1 |
There are two "4" cards, so the sum of successful choices is 3*2 + 2 + 1 = 9 .
Which means that the chance to get a greater 2nd card is 9 out of 20 or 0.45 .
superlike :)
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Brilliant does not allow short responses, so, thanx)
Number of ways to select two cards out of five is C 2 5 . Given a pair of cards, there's only one way to arrange them so that second is greater than the first with the exception of a pair 44. Hence, the probability is 2 ⋅ C 2 5 C 2 5 − 1 = 4 5 % < 5 0 % .
We add up the percentages for each card being drawn out and then divide by 5 to find the average: if 4 then 75% x 2 = 150%, 6 then 50% if 7 then 25% and if 8 then 0% then we get 225/5 = 45% hence the correct answer less than 50%.
There are 2 number 4 cards. Probabilty of choosing number 4 cards: 2/5
For second card, probability of choosing card that bigger than number 4: 3/4
Probability is 2/5*3/4=6/20
By this way, total probability is
2/5 * 3/4 + 1/5 * 2/4 + 1/5 * 1/4 = 9/20
if you pick a 4 you have 75% chanches of takeing a greater number if you pick a 5 then 50% a 6 25% and an 8 you have 0% so
(75×2+50+25+0)÷5=45% so less than 50%
There are 5 cards and only 2 of them are the smallest number
this means= 5/2 = %40
I don't know if this is true but I did it this way
You have a 20% chance of getting each one of those cards on your first pick which totals a 40% chance to get a 4 then a 20% chance for 6, 7 and 8. For a 4 you have a 75% chance of getting a card higher than 4, for a 6 you have a 50%, for a 7 you have a 25% and an 8 you have 0%. By multiplying the % chance of you getting x card number by the percent chance of getting a second card bigger than it, for example for a 6 there is a 20% chance of getting it times a 50% chance of getting a card bigger than it so a 10% total chance, than add all of the percentages together you get 45%, which is less than 50% =>QED.
Each card has a 25% percent of being drawn, therefore its less than 50%
The first drawn card has a probability of occurrence of 20% (1/5=0.2). If we consider each case separately we get:
1) The probability that the first card which will be drawn is 8 is 0.2 (as noticed above). The probability that the next card is higher than 8 is simply 0. So P1=0.2*0=0
2) The probability that the first card which will be drawn is 7 is 0.2 (as noticed above). The probability that the next card is higher than 7 is simply 0.25 as only card 8 satisfies the requirement (1 card out of remaining 4 so 25%) . So P2=0.2*0.25=0.05
3)The probability that the first card which will be drawn is 6 is 0.2 (as noticed above). The probability that the next card is higher than 6 is simply 0.5 as only cards 7 & 8 satisfy the requirement (2 cards out of remaining 4 so 50%) . So P3=0.2*0.5=0.1
4)The probability that the first card which will be drawn is 4 is 0.4 (2 cards with number 4). The probability that the next card is higher than 4 is simply 0.75 as only cards 6,7 & 8 satisfy the requirement (3 cards out of remaining 4 so 75%) . So P4=0.4*0.75=0.3.
So in total: P1+P2+P3+P4=0.05+0.1+0.3=0.45 (45%)
I hope it makes sense ! :)
The cards that can have a greater amount on them for the second draw is 4,6,7 so the first probability is 3/5 and there are three cards that can greater but without replacement 3/4 giving: (3/5)*(3/4) = 9/20
For having a first reference, we could calculate how many sets of cards can be shown, so there are 5 different cards that can be taken in pairs, this is 5*4=20, 5 represents the first card (any of them), and 4 represents the second card (because it's not possible to repeat one of them), now we can see how many sets are not favorable (the first is greater). There are 5 non-favorable sets which begin with an 8, 4 which begin with a 7, 3 which begin with a 5... But... Wait we've found out 12 non-favorable cases, and that's greater than 50%
Probability of getting 4 itself as the second card is 50 %, if the first card is from 6, 7 or 8 which also is more than 50%.
There is a small possibility that the first two cards are the same (i.e. both 4 ), then either one is bigger will share equal possibilities, so the answer is Less Than 50%.
Picking a 4 = 40%. Then picking 6,7, or 8 = 75% chance. This combination = 40% * 75% = 30%.
Picking a 6 = 20%. Picking a 7 or 8 = 50% chance. This combination = 10% chance.
Picking a 7 = 20%. Picking 8 = 25%. This combination = 5%.
Picking 8 = 20%. Immediate loss.
Total winning probabilities. 30% + 10% + 5% = 45%
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Every possibility for the first and second draw is shown above. "x" marks are not possible (since it would be the same card twice). Checkmarks are where the second card is larger than the first. Of the 20 possible spaces, 9 of them have the second card be larger, so the probability the second card is larger than the first is 2 0 9 = 4 5 % .