That's An Odd Probability

If I flip 2016 fair coins, what is the probability that I get an odd number of heads?

1 4 \frac14 1 2 \frac{1}{2} 2 3 \frac23 3 4 \frac34

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3 solutions

Chung Kevin
Aug 24, 2016

The answer is 1 2 \boxed{\dfrac12} .

Claim : If I toss 2 n 2n fair coins, then the probability that I get an odd number of heads is the same as the probability that I get an even number of heads.

Proof : The value of the probability that P r ( m heads ) \mathsf{Pr} (m\text{ heads}) can be computed using binomial distribution ,

P r ( m heads ) = ( 2016 m ) p m q 2016 m , \mathsf{Pr} (m\text{ heads}) = \dbinom {2016}m p^m \cdot q^{2016-m} \; ,

where p p and q q denotes the probability of obtaining a heads and a coin, respectively, and p + q = 1 p+q=1 . Since we are given that it is a fair coin, then p = q = 1 2 p=q= \dfrac12 .

Therefore, P r ( m heads ) = ( 2016 m ) ( 1 2 ) 2016 \mathsf{Pr} (m\text{ heads}) =\dbinom {2016}m \left( \dfrac 12\right)^{2016} .

P r ( odd number of heads ) = P r ( 1 head ) + P r ( 3 heads ) + P r ( 5 heads ) + + P r ( 2015 heads ) = ( 2016 1 ) ( 1 2 ) 2016 + ( 2016 3 ) ( 1 2 ) 2016 + ( 2016 5 ) ( 1 2 ) 2016 + + ( 2016 2015 ) ( 1 2 ) 2016 = ( 1 2 ) 2016 k odd 2016 ( 2016 k ) = ( 1 2 ) 2016 k even 2016 ( 2016 k ) , See ( ) = ( 2016 0 ) ( 1 2 ) 2016 + ( 2016 2 ) ( 1 2 ) 2016 + ( 2016 4 ) ( 1 2 ) 2016 + + ( 2016 2016 ) ( 1 2 ) 2016 = P r ( 0 head ) + P r ( 2 heads ) + P r ( 4 heads ) + + P r ( 2016 heads ) = P r ( even number of heads ) \begin{aligned} \mathsf{Pr} (\text{odd number of heads}) &=& \mathsf{Pr} (1\text{ head}) + \mathsf{Pr} (3\text{ heads}) + \mathsf{Pr} (5\text{ heads}) + \cdots + \mathsf{Pr} (2015\text{ heads}) \\ &=& \dbinom {2016}1 \left( \dfrac 12\right)^{2016} + \dbinom {2016}3 \left( \dfrac 12\right)^{2016} + \dbinom {2016}5 \left( \dfrac 12\right)^{2016} + \cdots + \dbinom {2016}{2015} \left( \dfrac 12\right)^{2016} \\ &=& \left(\dfrac12\right)^{2016} \sum_{k\text{ odd}}^{2016} \dbinom{2016}k \\ &=& \left(\dfrac12\right)^{2016} \sum_{k\text{ even}}^{2016} \dbinom{2016}k , \qquad \qquad \text{ See } (\bigstar) \\ &=& \dbinom {2016}0 \left( \dfrac 12\right)^{2016} + \dbinom {2016}2 \left( \dfrac 12\right)^{2016} + \dbinom {2016}4 \left( \dfrac 12\right)^{2016} + \cdots + \dbinom {2016}{2016} \left( \dfrac 12\right)^{2016} \\ &=& \mathsf{Pr} (0\text{ head}) + \mathsf{Pr} (2\text{ heads}) + \mathsf{Pr} (4\text{ heads}) + \cdots + \mathsf{Pr} (2016\text{ heads}) \\ &=& \mathsf{Pr} (\text{even number of heads}) \qquad \blacksquare \end{aligned}

Since the total number of heads can be either odd or even only, and we have proven that these two probability are equal, then the probability in question is 1 2 \dfrac12 .


Note : The various proof for ( ) (\bigstar) has been written up by here by the author himself!.

Joe Mansley
Aug 26, 2016

Imagine you've flipped 2015 coins and have 1 coin to go. There are 2 cases:

Case 1: You've flipped an odd number of heads, so the number of heads is even if the final flip is heads (which has a probability of 1/2)

Case 2: You've flipped an even number of heads, so the number of heads is even if the final flip is tails (which has a probability of 1/2)

So the probability of getting an even number of heads at the end is 1/2

Viki Zeta
Aug 23, 2016

How many coins, how much ever you flip, the possibility of getting head or tail is 1 2 \dfrac{1}{2}

Do you have a proof?

Wen Z - 4 years, 9 months ago

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probability = No of chances Total no of chances \dfrac{\text{No of chances}}{\text{Total no of chances}}

A coin have only 1 head, and 2 possibility - Head and tail.

Viki Zeta - 4 years, 9 months ago

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You can state it as, prossibility of getting head and tail... H + T= 1 here H = head ,T = tail...its half of one to each getting a head or tail...

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 9 months ago

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