If I flip 2016 fair coins, what is the probability that I get an odd number of heads?
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The answer is 2 1 .
Claim : If I toss 2 n fair coins, then the probability that I get an odd number of heads is the same as the probability that I get an even number of heads.
Proof : The value of the probability that P r ( m heads ) can be computed using binomial distribution ,
P r ( m heads ) = ( m 2 0 1 6 ) p m ⋅ q 2 0 1 6 − m ,
where p and q denotes the probability of obtaining a heads and a coin, respectively, and p + q = 1 . Since we are given that it is a fair coin, then p = q = 2 1 .
Therefore, P r ( m heads ) = ( m 2 0 1 6 ) ( 2 1 ) 2 0 1 6 .
P r ( odd number of heads ) = = = = = = = P r ( 1 head ) + P r ( 3 heads ) + P r ( 5 heads ) + ⋯ + P r ( 2 0 1 5 heads ) ( 1 2 0 1 6 ) ( 2 1 ) 2 0 1 6 + ( 3 2 0 1 6 ) ( 2 1 ) 2 0 1 6 + ( 5 2 0 1 6 ) ( 2 1 ) 2 0 1 6 + ⋯ + ( 2 0 1 5 2 0 1 6 ) ( 2 1 ) 2 0 1 6 ( 2 1 ) 2 0 1 6 k odd ∑ 2 0 1 6 ( k 2 0 1 6 ) ( 2 1 ) 2 0 1 6 k even ∑ 2 0 1 6 ( k 2 0 1 6 ) , See ( ★ ) ( 0 2 0 1 6 ) ( 2 1 ) 2 0 1 6 + ( 2 2 0 1 6 ) ( 2 1 ) 2 0 1 6 + ( 4 2 0 1 6 ) ( 2 1 ) 2 0 1 6 + ⋯ + ( 2 0 1 6 2 0 1 6 ) ( 2 1 ) 2 0 1 6 P r ( 0 head ) + P r ( 2 heads ) + P r ( 4 heads ) + ⋯ + P r ( 2 0 1 6 heads ) P r ( even number of heads ) ■
Since the total number of heads can be either odd or even only, and we have proven that these two probability are equal, then the probability in question is 2 1 .
Note : The various proof for ( ★ ) has been written up by here by the author himself!.