⌊ 2 ⌊ 1 ⌋ + 1 1 + 2 ⌊ 2 ⌋ + 1 1 + 2 ⌊ 3 ⌋ + 1 1 + ⋯ + 2 ⌊ 1 0 0 ⌋ + 1 1 ⌋ = ?
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Yes. Essentially we are hunting down the values of k such that f ( k ) = ⌊ k ⌋ increases in value.
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Consider the following sum:
S k = n = 1 ∑ k 2 2 ⌊ n ⌋ + 1 1 , k ∈ N ∗
S k = 2 k + 1 1 + n = 1 ∑ k 2 − 1 2 ⌊ n ⌋ + 1 1
Let us fix the value of ⌊ n ⌋ to an integer m . So m can range between 1 and k − 1 . (As long as we can see that n is ranging from 1 to k 2 − 1 ).
The question is : How many possibilities can ⌊ n ⌋ be equal to m ??
Note that for this to be possible, we have:
m ≤ n < m + 1
Hence:
m 2 ≤ n ≤ ( m + 1 ) 2 − 1
Which means that n can take ( ( m + 1 ) 2 − 1 − m 2 + 1 ) = ( 2 m + 1 ) values in that range.Therefore we can conclude:
It has 2 m + 1 possibilities for ⌊ n ⌋ to be equal to m .
And Since m can range between 1 and k − 1 , We can write our sum as follows:
S k = 2 k + 1 1 + n = 1 ∑ k 2 − 1 2 ⌊ n ⌋ + 1 1
= 2 k + 1 1 + m = 1 ∑ k − 1 2 m + 1 1 × ( 2 m + 1 )
= 2 k + 1 1 + k − 1
So , for all non zero natural k , we have:
⌊ S k ⌋ = ⌊ 2 k + 1 1 + k − 1 ⌋ = k − 1
Now just plug in k = 1 0 for this problem.