Fourier Transform and Basis Change

A quantum-mechanical state has a position wavefunction given by

ψ ( x ) = π 1 / 4 e x 2 2 . \large \psi(x) = \pi^{-1/4} e^{-\frac{x^2}{2}}.

What is the wavefunction ψ ( p ) \psi(p) of the same state written in the momentum basis?

π 1 / 4 e p 2 2 \pi^{-1/4} e^{-\frac{p^2}{2}} π 1 / 4 1 / 2 e p 2 2 2 \pi^{-1/4} \hbar^{-1/2} e^{-\frac{p^2}{2\hbar^2}} e i p x / 2 π \frac{e^{ipx/\hbar}}{2\pi \hbar} δ ( p ) \delta(p)

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1 solution

Matt DeCross
May 10, 2016

This wavefunction is a Gaussian, so its Fourier transform (i.e., the same state in the momentum basis) will also be a Gaussian. This leaves two possible solutions. Computing the integral explicitly to compute ψ ( p ) \psi(p) by completing the square in the exponent yields:

ψ ( p ) = e i p x / 2 π π 1 / 4 e x 2 / 2 d x = π 1 / 4 1 / 2 e p 2 / ( 2 2 ) , \psi(p) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{ e^{ipx / \hbar}}{\sqrt{2\pi \hbar}} \pi^{-1/4} e^{-x^2/2} dx = \pi^{-1/4} \hbar^{-1/2} e^{-p^2/(2\hbar^2)},

as claimed.

In numerator, e i p x e^{\frac{-ipx}{\hslash}} for this is inverse transform you wrote.

lovro cupic - 1 year, 10 months ago

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