A calculus problem by Pratik Shastri

Calculus Level 4

0 π / 2 sin 100 x d x 0 π / 2 sin 102 x d x \large \dfrac{\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin^{100} x \, dx}{\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin^{102} x \, dx}

If the integral above can be expressed as a b \dfrac ab , where a a and b b are coprime positive integers, find a + b a+b .

203 201 200 204

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2 solutions

Jeel Shah
Jul 31, 2014

In order to solve this problem quickly, one has to be aware of Wallis' Intergals . Being aware of these will, after some simplification, give you the answer rather easily.

  1. We have to find W 100 W_{100} and W 102 W_{102} . The formula to find W n W_n where n n is an even number ( 2 p 2p ) or symbolically n = 2 p n = 2p is

W 2 p = ( 2 p ) ! 2 2 p ( p ! ) 2 π 2 W_{2p} = \frac{(2p)!}{2^{2p}(p!)^2} \frac{\pi}{2}

Using the formula, we simply divide W 100 W 102 \frac{W_{100}}{W_{102}} to get

E = ( 100 ) ! 2 100 ( 50 ! ) 2 π 2 ( 102 ) ! 2 102 ( 51 ! ) 2 π 2 E = {\frac{(100)!}{2^{100}(50!)^2}\frac{\pi}{2} \over \frac{(102)!}{2^{102}(51!)^2}\frac{\pi}{2}}

Now, it's just matter of simplification. We immediately can see that π 2 \frac{\pi}{2} will cancel out; dividing 2 102 2^{102} and 2 100 2^{100} will give us 2 2 2^2 and 100 ! 100! will get cancelled out by the larger factorial leaving us with 102 101 102\cdot 101 in the denominator.

E = 2 2 ( 51 ! ) 2 102 101 ( 50 ! ) 2 E = {2^2 \cdot (51!)^2 \over 102\cdot 101 (50!)^2}

Further simplification will give us

E = 102 101 E = \frac{102}{101}

Therefore, our answer is 102 + 101 = 203

The formulas of the Wallis' integrals can be obtained using Integration by reduction formula , which can further be obtained by integrating sin n x \sin^{n} {x} by parts , by rewriting I n = 0 π / 2 sin n x d x I_n=\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin^{n} {x} dx as I n = 0 π / 2 ( sin n 1 x ) 1st function ( sin x ) 2nd function d x \begin{aligned} I_n &=\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \underbrace{(\sin^{n-1} {x})}_{\text{1st function}} \underbrace{(\sin {x})}_{\text{2nd function}} dx \end{aligned}

Pratik Shastri - 6 years, 10 months ago

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Good point! I should have mentioned that. Sorry about that.

Jeel Shah - 6 years, 10 months ago

The top is (1/2)(3/4)(5/6)......(99/100)(pi/2). The bottom is (1/2)(3/4)(5/6)......(99/100)(101/102)(pi/2). By getting rid of like terms on the top and bottom, you end up with 1/(101/102)= 102/101. Now, 102+101=203. I'm not necessarily saying your work was wrong. But it could've been simpler :-)

Ifunanya Nwogbaga - 6 years, 9 months ago
Ifunanya Nwogbaga
Aug 27, 2014

The top is (1/2)(3/4)(5/6)......(99/100)(pi/2). The bottom is (1/2)(3/4)(5/6)......(99/100)(101/102)(pi/2). By getting rid of like terms on the top and bottom, you end up with 1/(101/102)= 102/101. Now, 102+101=203. Just a simpler solution. :-)

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