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Why isn't m g cos θ = μ s m g sin θ instead?
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The block is moving down the ramp due to the force of m g sin θ . The frictional force, resisting the downward force, is μ s N , where N is the normal force N = m g cos θ , therefore, the frictional force is μ s m g cos θ . Check out equation 3 here .
Because the force of friction is the coefficient of friction μ s times the normal force to the ramp, not the coefficient of friction multiplied by the force tangential to the ramp.
Since co-efficient of friction is 0.5 hence tan(theta(max))=1/2. Now tan(theta)=dy/dx=x/10.Now x/10<1/2 hence X(max)=5. So y(max)=25/20=1.25
I did it in the same way .
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The frictional force decreases going up the slope. The highest point with an inclination of θ with the horizontal where the block of mass m can be placed without slipping is when the downward force is balanced by the frictional force as follows:
m g sin θ = μ s m g cos θ ⇒ tan θ = μ s = 0 . 5
Since, tan θ = d x d y = 2 0 2 x = 1 0 x .
And when tan θ = 0 . 5 ⇒ 1 0 x = 0 . 5
⇒ x = 5 ⇒ y = 2 0 2 5 = 1 . 2 5