Let x be a prime number larger than 3. What is the probability that x ∣ 2 x − 1 − 1 and x ∣ 3 x − 1 − 1 ?
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Simple standard approach.
Even if the problem has not stated "prime larger than 3", the probability still would have been 1.
@achal jain I do not like using probability, because there is no uniform distribution on countably infinite terms. That makes it trickier to rigorously express what you mean.
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Thanks for your feedback. Your are right , Will take care of it next time.
According to Fermat's Little Theorem all prime numbers p : a p − 1 ≡ 1 ( m o d p ) ⟹ a p − 1 − 1 ≡ 0 ( m o d p ) ⟹ p ∣ a p − 1 The equations satisfy the above equations.So, the probability is 1
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Fermat's Little Theorem gives for all primes p :
a p − 1 ≡ 1 ( m o d p ) ⟹ a p − 1 − 1 ≡ 0 ( m o d p ) ⟹ p ∣ a p − 1
The condition is that a and p are comprime but because p > 3 it follows g c d ( p , 2 ) = g c d ( p , 3 ) = 1 so:
p ∣ 2 p − 1 − 1 p ∣ 3 p − 1 − 1
This applies to all p so the probability is:
1