m = 1 ∑ ∞ n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( m + n ) ! 1 = ?
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How does the double summation turn to single , in the 2nd step ?
You need to show that the original sum itself is absolutely convergent in order to do the step from first to second equation (collecting the terms f r a c 1 k ! together).
Did exact same .So overrated .
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Yeah exactly it is really overrated! So much so that I was forced to re-check my answer again by doing Beta function and all those substitution(which is actually tedious).
Expanding the series for a few terms, we can see that it is basically ∑ i = 2 ∞ n ! ( n − 1 ) . From the series expansion of the exponential function, we can see that the above series matches the series expansion of the differential of x e x − x 1 = x 2 e x ( x − 1 ) + 1 for when x=1. Putting x=1 in the function above, we can see that the answer is 1
How would you expand the series? I very rarely deal with double summations
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@Curtis Clement i had a lot of problems with series expansion too {especially the double sums} ...... I find it helpful to write a double sum in sort of a matrix like thing with the row containing n terms and column containing m terms
like this ⎝ ⎜ ⎜ ⎜ ⎜ ⎛ 2 ! 1 3 ! 1 4 ! 1 . . 3 ! 1 4 ! 1 5 ! 1 4 ! 1 5 ! 1 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ⎠ ⎟ ⎟ ⎟ ⎟ ⎞ . observe that diagonally {top right to left} the factorials repeat n − 1 times and hence we can convert this to a single sum.
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Thanks you made that very clear :)
I always do the same whenever I encounter double sums. However, make mistake this time as i just go through the title without calculating the sum. :(
Telescoping the series we terminate it into 1/n! - 1/(n+1)! Where n ranges from 1 to infinite. Hence after solving limits we get answer=1
Yes your solution is right. But please do explain it in detail.
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This is same as:
∑ m = 1 ∞ ∑ k = m + 1 ∞ k ! 1 = ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! k − 1 = ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! k − ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! 1 = 0 ! 1 + ∑ k = 2 ∞ ( k − 1 ) ! 1 − ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! 1 = 1 + ∑ j = 1 ∞ j ! 1 − ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! 1
Now we note that ∑ k = 1 ∞ k ! 1 is absolutely convergent, so the rearrangement of terms is valid, therefore ∑ m = 1 ∞ ∑ n = 1 ∞ ( m + n ) ! 1 = 1