Double natural constants?

Calculus Level 4

m = 1 n = 1 1 ( m + n ) ! = ? \large \sum _{ m=1 }^{ \infty }{ \sum _{ n=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ (m+n)! } } } = \ ?


The answer is 1.0.

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3 solutions

Aditya Kumar
Mar 29, 2015

This is same as:

m = 1 k = m + 1 1 k ! = k = 1 k 1 k ! = k = 1 k k ! k = 1 1 k ! = 1 0 ! + k = 2 1 ( k 1 ) ! k = 1 1 k ! = 1 + j = 1 1 j ! k = 1 1 k ! \sum _{ m=1 }^{ \infty }{ \sum _{ k=m+1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ k! } } } \\ =\sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { k-1 }{ k! } } \\ =\sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { k }{ k! } } -\sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ k! } } \\ =\frac { 1 }{ 0! } +\sum _{ k=2 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ (k-1)! } } -\sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ k! } } \\ =1+\sum _{ j=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ j! } } -\sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ k! } }

Now we note that k = 1 1 k ! \sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ k! } } is absolutely convergent, so the rearrangement of terms is valid, therefore m = 1 n = 1 1 ( m + n ) ! = 1 \sum _{ m=1 }^{ \infty }{ \sum _{ n=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ (m+n)! } } } =1

How does the double summation turn to single , in the 2nd step ?

Kudou Shinichi - 6 years, 2 months ago

You need to show that the original sum itself is absolutely convergent in order to do the step from first to second equation (collecting the terms f r a c 1 k ! frac{1}{k!} together).

Ivan Koswara - 5 years, 11 months ago

Did exact same .So overrated .

Rushikesh Joshi - 6 years, 2 months ago

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Yeah exactly it is really overrated! So much so that I was forced to re-check my answer again by doing Beta function and all those substitution(which is actually tedious).

Kartik Sharma - 6 years, 2 months ago
Vishnu C
Mar 28, 2015

Expanding the series for a few terms, we can see that it is basically i = 2 ( n 1 ) n ! \sum_{i=2}^\infty \frac{(n-1)}{n!} . From the series expansion of the exponential function, we can see that the above series matches the series expansion of the differential of e x x 1 x = e x ( x 1 ) + 1 x 2 \frac{{e}^{x}}{x}-\frac{1}{x}=\frac{{e}^{x}(x-1)+1}{{x}^{2}} for when x=1. Putting x=1 in the function above, we can see that the answer is 1 \boxed1

How would you expand the series? I very rarely deal with double summations

Curtis Clement - 6 years, 2 months ago

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@Curtis Clement i had a lot of problems with series expansion too {especially the double sums} ...... I find it helpful to write a double sum in sort of a matrix like thing with the row containing n terms and column containing m terms

like this ( 1 2 ! 1 3 ! 1 4 ! . . . . . . . . 1 3 ! 1 4 ! 1 5 ! . . . . . . . . . 1 4 ! 1 5 ! . . . . . . . . ) . \begin{pmatrix} \frac{1}{2!} & \frac{1}{3!} & \frac{1}{4!} & ........\\ \frac{1}{3!} & \frac{1}{4!} & \frac{1}{5!} & .........\\ \frac{1}{4!} & \frac{1}{5!} & \frac{}{} &...... \\ .\\ .\\ \end{pmatrix}. observe that diagonally {top right to left} the factorials repeat n 1 n-1 times and hence we can convert this to a single sum.

Abhinav Raichur - 6 years ago

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Thanks you made that very clear :)

Curtis Clement - 6 years ago

I always do the same whenever I encounter double sums. However, make mistake this time as i just go through the title without calculating the sum. :(

Naren Bhandari - 2 years, 6 months ago
Aakash Khandelwal
Jun 26, 2015

Telescoping the series we terminate it into 1/n! - 1/(n+1)! Where n ranges from 1 to infinite. Hence after solving limits we get answer=1

Yes your solution is right. But please do explain it in detail.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 11 months ago

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