Function got a little lengthy for sake of symmetry!

Calculus Level 3

If provided s + e + a = 0 s+e+a=0 and a function f f is defined as f ( c ) = 1 c s + c e + 1 + 1 c e + c a + 1 + 1 c a + c s + 1 . \large f(c)=\dfrac{1}{c^s +c^{-e}+1}+\dfrac{1}{c^e +c^{-a}+1}+\dfrac{1}{c^a +c^{-s}+1} .

Find the derivative of f ( c ) f(c) at c = π c=\pi .


The answer is 0.000.

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2 solutions

Taufik Hakiki
Dec 31, 2015

We note that, 1 c s + c e + 1 + 1 c e + c a + 1 = c e c s + e + c e + 1 + 1 c e + c a + 1 = c e + 1 c e + c a + 1 ( 1 ) . \dfrac{1}{c^s+c^{-e}+1}+\dfrac{1}{c^e+c^{-a}+1}=\dfrac{c^e}{c^{s+e}+c^e+1}+\dfrac{1}{c^e+c^{-a}+1}=\dfrac{c^e+1}{c^e+c^{-a}+1}\ \ \ (1). Because s + e = a s+e=-a . Next, since s = e + a ) -s=e+a) , 1 c a + c s + 1 = 1 c a + c e + a + 1 = 1 c a + c e c a + 1 ( 2 ) . \dfrac{1}{c^a+c^{-s}+1}=\dfrac{1}{c^a+c^{e+a}+1}=\dfrac{1}{c^a+c^e c^a+1}\ \ \ (2). If we multiply ( 2 ) (2) by c a c a \dfrac{c^{-a}}{c^{-a}} , then ( 2 ) (2) become 1 c a + c s + 1 = 1 c a + c e + a + 1 c a c a = c a c e + c a + 1 ( 3 ) . \dfrac{1}{c^a+c^{-s}+1}=\dfrac{1}{c^a+c^{e+a}+1}\dfrac{c^{-a}}{c^{-a}}=\dfrac{c^{-a}}{c^e+c^{-a}+1}\ \ \ (3). Summing up ( 1 ) (1) and ( 3 ) (3) , we have f ( c ) = c e + c a + 1 c e + c a + 1 = 1. f(c)=\dfrac{c^e+c^{-a}+1}{c^e+c^{-a}+1}=1. Hence f ( c ) = 0 f'(c)=0 at c = π c=\pi .

Akhil Bansal
Dec 29, 2015

f ( c ) = 1 c s + c e + 1 + 1 c e + c a + 1 + 1 c a + c s + 1 \large f(c) = \dfrac{1}{c^s +c^{-e}+1} + \dfrac{1}{c^e+c^{-a}+1} + \dfrac{1}{c^a +c^{-s}+1} f ( c ) = 1 ( s c s 1 e c e 1 ) ( c s + c e + 1 ) 2 + 1 ( e c e 1 a c a 1 ) ( c e + c a + 1 ) 2 + 1 ( a c a 1 s c s 1 ) ( c a + c s + 1 ) 2 \large f'(c) = \dfrac{-1 (s c^{s-1} - e c^{-e-1} )}{(c^s + c^{-e} +1)^2} + \dfrac{-1 (e c^{e-1} - a c^{-a-1} )}{(c^e+ c^{-a} +1)^2} + \dfrac{-1 (a c^{a-1} - s c^{-s-1} )}{(c^a + c^{-s} +1)^2} Because answer is independent of c,s,a
Assuming e = s = a = 0 f ( π ) = 1 ( 0 × π 0 1 0 × π 0 1 ) ( π 0 + π 0 + 1 ) 2 + 1 ( 0 × π 0 1 0 × π 0 1 ) ( π 0 + π 0 + 1 ) 2 + 1 ( 0 × π 0 1 0 × π 0 1 ) ( π 0 + π 0 + 1 ) 2 \large f'(\pi) = \dfrac{-1 (0 \times \pi^{0-1} - 0 \times \pi^{0-1})}{(\pi^0 + \pi^0 + 1)^2} + \dfrac{-1 (0 \times \pi^{0-1} - 0 \times \pi^{0-1})}{(\pi^0 + \pi^0 + 1)^2} +\dfrac{-1 (0 \times \pi^{0-1} - 0 \times \pi^{0-1})}{(\pi^0 + \pi^0 + 1)^2} f ( π ) = 0 \large \color{#3D99F6}{ f'(\pi) = 0}

Moderator note:

It would be better to make the observation that f ( x ) f(x) is a constant, and hence f ( x ) = 0 f'(x) = 0 . This is a common setup in olympiad problems.

does it work for all values of e,s,and a?and if yes why? i took e=-2,s=1,a=1 and i got about -.1 its probably because i did a mistake in the calculation but i couldnt find it

thanks

Hamza A - 5 years, 5 months ago

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Yes,you can take any arbitarary e,s,a in which given function is defined.

Akhil Bansal - 5 years, 5 months ago

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thanks and @Taufik Hakiki s proof made it clearer too

Hamza A - 5 years, 5 months ago

@Calvin Lin , In competitive exams like Jee , our main aim is to choose the correct option from the given options. So,Is it correct approach for quick solving ?

Akhil Bansal - 5 years, 5 months ago

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My point is that, it is much easier to see that f ( x ) = 1 f(x) = 1 rather than to find f ( x ) f'(x) .

With reference to your comment, I do not care about "All I want is the final correct answer". You might as well say "I answered 0 and you said I was correct, so I am correct". There is very little understanding in such an approach. Sure, you can use it to guess what the correct answer should be, but after that you should substantiate your conjecture especially if you intend to present a solution and ask the challenge masters to review it.

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 5 months ago

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Oops!!. Sorry..

Akhil Bansal - 5 years, 5 months ago

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