German Tank Problem

An airline has numbered their planes 1 , 2 , , N , 1,2,\ldots,N, and you observe the following 3 planes, which are randomly sampled from the N N planes:

What is the maximum likelihood estimate for N ? N? In other words, what value of N N would, according to conditional probability, make your observation most likely?

17 18 30 34

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3 solutions

Eli Ross Staff
Jun 27, 2016

Relevant wiki: Maximum Likelihood Estimation (MLE)

If N < 17 , N < 17, the probability is, of course, 0. If N 17 , N\ge 17, the probability of seeing these three planes is 3 ! × 1 N × 1 N 1 × 1 N 2 . 3! \times \frac{1}{N} \times \frac{1}{N-1} \times \frac{1}{N-2}. Note that as N N grows, this probability decreases, so the maximum likelihood estimate for N N is 17.

This should strike you as slightly weird -- intuitively, 17 seems like a bad guess for N N since, well, "what are the odds I happened to see the largest plane?" This illustrates an issue with maximum likelihood estimators (finding the parameter which makes the observed outcome most likely). A better estimate might be the minimum-variance unbiased estimator*, which is m ( 1 + 1 k ) 1 = 17 ( 1 + 1 3 ) 1 21.67. m \cdot \left(1+\frac{1}{k}\right)-1 = 17 \cdot \left(1+ \frac{1}{3}\right) - 1 \approx 21.67.

*: Unbiased estimator means that the expected value of the estimate for the parameter is equal to the true value of the parameter. The minimum-variance one is often considered the "best", which should be fairly intuitive since lower variance means your estimate is more likely to be close to the true value. In general, the bias-variance tradeoff is a fundamental issues in fields like statistics and machine learning .

why is the probability of seeing these planes 3! * (1/N) * (1/(N-1)) * (1/(N-2))?

Kris Wright - 2 years, 9 months ago

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The number of combinations is "N choose 3" = N!/((N-3)!3!) = N.(N-1).(N-2)/3! And so the probability of seeing this particular combination is 1/(N.(N-1).(N-2)/3!) which is equal to 3!/(N.(N-1).(N-2))

Ben Allen - 2 years, 7 months ago

Because you have N number of planes that are numbered from 1,2, ...., 16, 17. Out of these planes, you have 1/17 chances of picking the first plane. Then, you will be picking 1/16 (because the planes are not replaced). The 3! accounts for the permutability of these selections.

Edward Huh - 2 years, 5 months ago

1/C³n = 3! * (1/N) * (1/(N-1)) * (1/(N-2)),C³n represents the number of select 3 from N.

di liu - 2 years, 1 month ago

For me is still intuitive 17, and therefore cannot find the reason to use minimum-variance, can you explain more the "well, what are the odds I happened to see the largest plane?" part? seeing the largest plane has not the same probability as seeing any of the planes?

Ricardo Carrillo - 2 years, 1 month ago

I did code to run a simulation and ends up around 21,6. How did you came up with the math formula m (1 + 1/k) - 1 ?

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 9 months ago

I feel that in the second part you considering some other distribution other than uniform distribution. Is this right?

Ansh Prakash - 10 months, 1 week ago
Yamini Nair
Apr 5, 2020

I chose the lowest number possible that included one of the selected values because then the probability of the given numbers being selected is higher compared to the other N values

Fu Xiaotong
Sep 3, 2019

The numerator is fixed, and the bigger the N is, the bigger the denominator is. Then we choose min N 17

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