For all prime numbers greater than and , is the sum below always divisible by ?
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Here is a thread with the answer.
The first step is to note that for 1 ≤ n ≤ p − 1 , p 1 ( n p ) ≡ n ( − 1 ) p − n ≡ n ( − 1 ) n − 1 mod p for odd primes p . Showing that the sum of these is congruent to 0 mod p is pretty fiddly, and is in the link.