The golden ratio ϕ is the larger positive root to x 2 = x + 1 .
We can calculate that
ϕ 0 = 1 , ϕ 1 = ϕ , ϕ 2 = ϕ + 1 , ϕ 3 = 2 ϕ + 1 , ϕ − 1 = ϕ − 1 , ϕ − 2 = − ϕ + 2 , ϕ − 3 = 2 ϕ − 3 .
This allows us to write numbers in base
ϕ
, where each place value is a non-negative integer less than
ϕ
. For example,
1
2
3
=
=
=
1
ϕ
+
(
−
ϕ
+
2
)
(
ϕ
+
1
)
+
(
−
ϕ
+
2
)
=
=
=
1
ϕ
1
0
.
0
1
ϕ
1
0
0
.
0
1
ϕ
.
Give the finite decimal representation of 5 in base ϕ that doesn't use a consecutive pair of 1's.
(You may assume the fact that a finite decimal representation with no consecutive pair of 1's is unique. This is known as the standard form for base ϕ .)
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As it turns out, there is a unique way to represent every positive integer as a finite decimal in base ϕ with no consecutive 11. These 2 requirements are known as standard form in base ϕ . The requirement of finite is needed because 1 = 0 . 1 0 1 0 1 0 … ϕ . The requirement of "no consecutive 1's" is needed since 1 1 ϕ = 1 0 0 ϕ .
The existence of a standard form for integers follows from Chung's argument of "eventually the 1's are spread out". In particular, we can conclude that the number of 1's is at most n .
Uniqueness in standard form for integers follows from this argument:
Suppose that
N
=
∑
f
i
ϕ
i
=
∑
g
i
ϕ
i
are 2 different standard form representations of
N
. Let
k
be the largest power in which the coefficients differ, and without loss of generality,
f
k
=
1
,
g
k
=
0
.
Claim:
i
<
k
∑
g
i
ϕ
i
<
j
=
0
∑
∞
ϕ
k
−
1
−
2
j
=
ϕ
k
≤
i
≤
k
∑
f
i
ϕ
i
.
The first inequality follows because no two consecutive ones appear, and the inequality is strict because of the finiteness condition.
This leads a contradiction, since
n
=
∑
g
i
ϕ
i
<
∑
f
i
ϕ
i
=
n
.
We first note that, since ϕ < 2 , we can only have a string of 0 's and 1 's for any number base ϕ . So we can only add at most one of each ϕ n as calculated above. As ϕ − 2 is the only such term that results in a subtraction of ϕ , we will not be able to add any combination of the presently calculated ϕ n in order to get the desired "numeric" component of 5 . So we will need to calculate further values of ϕ n :
ϕ 4 = ( ϕ 2 ) 2 = ( ϕ + 1 ) 2 = ϕ 2 + 2 ϕ + 1 = 3 ϕ + 1 ;
ϕ − 4 = ( ϕ − 2 ) 2 = ( − ϕ + 2 ) 2 = ϕ 2 − 4 ϕ + 4 = − 3 ϕ + 5 .
Now we can find a suitable combination, namely
5 = ( 2 ϕ + 1 ) + ( ϕ − 1 ) + ( − 3 ϕ + 5 ) = ϕ 3 + ϕ − 1 + ϕ − 4 = 1 0 0 0 . 1 0 0 1 base ϕ .
@Chung Kevin This is an interesting question. I'm wondering about uniqueness, though, as we could also have, say,
1 = ( ϕ − 1 ) + ( 2 ϕ − 3 ) + ( − 3 ϕ + 5 ) = ϕ − 1 + ϕ − 3 + ϕ − 4 = 0 . 1 0 1 1 ,
2 = ( ϕ ) + ( 2 ϕ − 3 ) + ( − 3 ϕ + 5 ) = ϕ 1 + ϕ − 3 + ϕ − 4 = 1 0 . 0 0 1 1 and
3 = ( ϕ + 1 ) + ( 2 ϕ − 3 ) + ( − 3 ϕ + 5 ) = ϕ 2 + ϕ − 3 + ϕ − 4 = 1 0 0 . 0 0 1 1 .
which makes me wonder if we can't find other ways of expressing 5 if we look at further ϕ n . The posted answer may be unique, but I'm just not sure.
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I have to add the condition that no consecutive 1's is allowed, because 1 1 ϕ = 1 0 0 ϕ .
With that, it becomes unique (according to Wikipedia ).
4 = 1 0 1 . 0 1 ϕ = ϕ 2 + ϕ 0 + ϕ − 2 .
The "trick" that I do to calculate each subsequent number, is to
Eventually, the 1's are spread out sufficiently, so that there isn't a 2 or a 11 in the sequence, and so we're done.
In the case of 4, we're just doing the first step
3
+
1
=
1
0
0
.
0
1
ϕ
+
1
ϕ
=
1
0
1
.
0
1
ϕ
, which is why I didn't ask about 4.
In the case of 5, we get
4
+
1
=
1
0
1
.
0
1
ϕ
+
1
ϕ
=
1
0
2
.
0
1
ϕ
=
1
1
0
.
0
2
ϕ
=
1
1
0
.
1
0
0
1
ϕ
=
1
0
0
0
.
1
0
0
1
ϕ
.
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Great to know that there's a method. I was going at it rather haphazardly. I hadn't realized that all non-negative real numbers can be written in base ϕ using just 0 's and 1 's, (with no 1 1 subsequences to guarantee uniqueness).
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The requirement of finite is needed because 1 = 0 . 1 0 1 0 1 0 … ϕ . The requirement of "no consecutive 1's" is needed since 1 1 ϕ = 1 0 0 ϕ . These are the 2 requriements of standard form .
The existence of a standard form for integers follows from Chung's argument of "eventually the 1's are spread out".
Uniqueness in standard form for integers follows from this argument:
Suppose that
N
=
∑
f
i
ϕ
i
=
∑
g
i
ϕ
i
are 2 different standard form representations of
N
. Let
k
be the largest power in which the coefficients differ, and without loss of generality,
f
k
=
1
,
g
k
=
0
.
Claim:
∑
i
<
k
g
i
ϕ
i
<
∑
j
=
0
∞
ϕ
k
−
1
−
2
j
=
ϕ
k
≤
∑
i
≤
k
f
i
ϕ
i
.
The first inequality follows from no two consecutive ones appear, and the inequality is strict because of the finiteness condition. This leads a contradiction, since these representations are not equal.
I typed in answer as 1000.1001, it corrected itself to 1000.1, this question requires precision.
we have, ϕ 3 + 2 ϕ − 2 = 5
also we know that, ϕ 1 + ϕ − 2 = 2 (given)
substituting for 2 we get,
ϕ 3 + ( ϕ 1 + ϕ − 2 ) ϕ − 2 = 5
thus we get ϕ 3 + ϕ − 1 + ϕ − 4 = 5 = 1 0 0 0 . 1 0 0 1 ϕ
Your first line. Is it true? Where do you get this from?
The information that ϕ 3 = 2 ϕ + 1 and ϕ − 2 = − ϕ + 2 is provided in the question
multiplying the second equation by 2 and adding to the first we get
ϕ 3 + 2 ϕ − 2 = 5
2
=
1
0
.
0
1
ϕ
actually means
2
=
ϕ
+
ϕ
2
1
3
=
1
0
0
.
0
1
ϕ
actually means
3
=
ϕ
2
+
ϕ
2
1
Let's multiply these two
6
=
(
ϕ
+
ϕ
2
1
)
(
ϕ
2
+
ϕ
2
1
)
=
ϕ
3
+
ϕ
1
+
1
+
ϕ
4
1
So
5
=
ϕ
3
+
ϕ
1
+
ϕ
4
1
Which means
1
0
0
0
.
1
0
0
1
ϕ
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Here's a way to calculate each number inductively.
In the case of 4, we're just doing the first step 3 + 1 = 1 0 0 . 0 1 ϕ + 1 ϕ = 1 0 1 . 0 1 ϕ , which is why I didn't ask about 4.
In the case of 5, we get 4 + 1 = 1 0 1 . 0 1 ϕ + 1 ϕ = 1 0 2 . 0 1 ϕ = 1 1 0 . 0 2 ϕ = 1 1 0 . 1 0 0 1 ϕ = 1 0 0 0 . 1 0 0 1 ϕ .
We could also use multiplication to calculate larger values, and then do the removal of 2's and 11's. For example, with 2 and 3, we get
6 = 2 × 3 = 1 0 . 0 1 ϕ × 1 0 0 . 0 1 ϕ = 1 0 0 1 . 1 0 0 1 ϕ = 1 0 1 0 . 0 0 0 1 ϕ
The great thing about multiplication in base ϕ (and also in base 2), is that it works just like multiplication in base 10! We then have to deal with the non-0's or 1's by reducing them term by term.