Let ( G , ∘ ) be a finite abelian group of order n , say G = { a i } i = 1 i = n , where n is a positive integer. Also, let x = a 1 ∘ a 2 ∘ ⋯ ∘ a n − 1 ∘ a n .
What is the value of x 2 0 1 6 ?
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x = e G in general. A simple counterexample is the group ( Z 2 , + ) , the group of integers modulo 2 under addition modulo 2 .
x = 0 + 1 = 1 = 0 = e G
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You make reason, I have changed the proof, can you see, if am I right now?
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Yes, but there's a much shorter (simpler) argument.
Note that the map f : G → G defined by f ( g ) = g − 1 is a bijection (easy to verify) and since ( G , ∘ ) is abelian, we can rearrange and associate the group elements in any order in an expression involving the group elements with the operation ∘ , so we can rearrange the elements in x 2 such that x 2 = i = 1 ∏ n ( a i a i − 1 ) = ( e G ) n = e G and hence conclude that x 2 m = e G ∀ m ∈ Z +
G being a finite abelian group is isomorphic to ( Z m , + ) with m ∈ N or isomorphic to ( Z r × … × Z s , + ) with r , s ∈ N and the cartesian product is finite.
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G = { a i } i = 1 i = n and G is an abelian group and x = a 1 ∘ a 2 ∘ ⋯ a n − 1 ∘ a n . Since ∘ is a conmutative operation and in x are all the elements of G, we have two options:
1.- for a i its inverse a j is distinct to a i and they both are cancelled in x, or
2.- a i is its own inverse,
therefore x powered to 2 is e G since the operation ∘ is conmutative, so x 2 = e G ⇒ x 2 0 1 6 = ( x 2 ) 1 0 0 8 = e G 1 0 0 8 = e G