The block is projected towards right with initial velocity v such that it comes to rest just after travelling distance d = 1 0 m .
Find the time elapsed ( in sec ) just before it comes to rest .
The block is resting on the smooth part and is just in contact with rough part
Length of block is l = 1 0 m
Coefficient of Friction of rough surface is μ = 1 0 0 π 2
Take acceleration due to gravity g = 1 0 m / s 2
Inspiration Aniket Sanghi
All of my problems are original
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
@Aryan Sanghi Ah just today I found the exact same problem in Serway and Jewett physics for engineers. Problem no. 75 from Chapter 8, energy conservation. It's a fun one! This time I solved it by hand last night.
Log in to reply
Ohk. That's a nice coincidence. It's good you solved without code. :)
Log in to reply
Hehe, that way brilliant is like a repository of all the fun problems.
I didn't want to do any integrating or ODE solving; I used a numerical simulation method where I coded in the value of acceleration.
Firstly, let's take the length of the block that's on the rough side of the surface to be x .
Therefore, the normal force acting on that rough side would be N = − 1 0 x M g .
Multiplying the normal force by the friction coefficient and simplifying, we get:
x ¨ = − x μ
We know that the block will come to rest when x ˙ = 0 ; when we code in an initial value of x ˙ as a random value of v , by simulating till x ˙ = 0 , we can get the displacement travelled before rest for the test value of v .
This method is sort of a "virtual laboratory" approach to the problem. It's just trial and error. What I have done is as follows:
This time will be the time it will take for the block to come to rest.
Here's the program:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 |
|
Excellent code solution Krishna. Thanku for sharing it with us.
Log in to reply
You're welcome bro. Yeah; the virtual lab method is actually really effective against multiple scenarios. The code is surprisingly simple, yet it produces a result that is complicated to do by hand.
The equation of motion is
x ¨ = − g μ 1 0 x = − μ x
Thus the differential equation governing the movement of the block is
x ¨ + μ x = 0
The solution of this differential equation is
x ( t ) = a cos ( μ t ) + b sin ( μ t ) = a cos ( 1 0 π t ) + b sin ( 1 0 π t )
Since x(0) = 0, then a = 0 , and the solution x ( t ) = b sin ( 1 0 π t )
The velocity of the block is x ˙ ( t ) = 1 0 b π cos ( 1 0 π t )
Thus the velocity is decreasing (as the cos function is decreasing ) and becomes zero when 1 0 π t = 2 π
From which, the block will stop at t = 5 sec .
Since we are given that the block stops when it has travelled 1 0 m, then b = 1 0 and v = π . For a given initial velocity v , b = π 1 0 v , so that if v < π then the block will stop before travelling 1 0 m. However if v > π , then the solution we obtained is valid for 0 ≤ t ≤ t ∗ , where b sin ( 1 0 π t ∗ ) = 1 0 , i.e. sin ( 1 0 π t ∗ ) = v π ; and for t > t ∗ , the equation of motion becomes
x ¨ = − μ g , with x ( t ∗ ) = 1 0 and x ˙ ( t ∗ ) = 1 0 b π cos ( 1 0 π t ∗ )
Integrating once, to obtain the velocity, we obtain,
x ˙ = x ˙ ( t ∗ ) − μ g ( t − t ∗ )
Equating the above to zero, we can obtain t f , the final time of movement,
t f = t ∗ + μ g x ˙ ( t ∗ )
Excellent solution sir. Thanku for sharing it with us.
A crucial point to understand. Even though the equation of motion resembles that of an S. H. M., it is accidental. The force is neither a driving force, nor an inertial force. It is the resistive force. So, once the block stops, it will never move further .
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
Let the mass of the block be M and initial velocity be u
Find Velocity at time t and initial velocity.
Finding time