n = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 n n 2 = ?
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Even though it was lengthy, I really liked. It is very helpful for those who lack knowledge in series
Even though I know how to solve this using series, this was the first way I've learned to solve this question and I thought I'd share it with everyone else. Thanks for the compliment (=
n = 0 ∑ ∞ x n = 1 − x 1 ∀ ∣ x ∣ ≤ 1 ⇒ n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( d x d x n ) = d x d ( 1 − x 1 ) ⇒ n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n ⋅ x n ) = ( 1 − x ) 2 x ⇒ n = 0 ∑ ∞ d x d ( n ⋅ x n ) = d x d ( ( 1 − x ) 2 x ) ⇒ n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n 2 ⋅ x n ) = x ⋅ ( 1 − x ) 4 ( 1 − x ) 2 + 2 x ⋅ ( 1 − x ) = ( 1 − x ) 3 x + x 2
Well, we just input x = 2 1 and we get the answer as 6 .
∑ n = 1 ∞ 2 n n 2 = ∑ n = 0 ∞ 2 n + 1 ( n + 1 ) 2 = 2 1 ( ∑ n = 0 ∞ ( 2 n n 2 + 2 2 n n + 2 n 1 ) ) = 2 1 ( ∑ n = 0 ∞ 2 n n 2 + 2 ∑ n = 0 ∞ 2 n n + ∑ n = 0 ∞ 2 n 1 ) = 2 1 ( ∑ n = 1 ∞ 2 n n 2 + 0 + 2 ( 2 ) + 2 ) = 2 1 ( ∑ n = 1 ∞ 2 n n 2 + 6 ) = 2 1 ∑ n = 1 ∞ 2 n n 2 + 3 ∑ n = 1 ∞ 2 n n 2 − 2 1 ∑ n = 1 ∞ 2 n n 2 = 3 2 1 ∑ n = 1 ∞ 2 n n 2 = 3 ∑ n = 1 ∞ 2 n n 2 = 6
Hi @joel yip , I think that maybe you should add how you got ∑ 0 ∞ 2 n n = 2 to make your answer complete .
Well, it's just a suggestion ⌣ ¨
EDIT * I have added my own solution .
Thanks for the suggestion but I got it from a book called "The Pleasures of Pi,e".
Yes, I am also curious to know how did you conclude ∑ m = 0 ∞ 2 n n = 2 ?
Sir, you'll get your answer if you put x = 2 1 in the step preceding the step where I differentiate for the second time , in my solution .
Its an arithmetico geometrico progression you can solve it by taking it as S and multiply the common ratio to it and subtract from S to get a GP then you can solve it
could you explain me the conversion from third to fourth step .how can summation be changed to 1 again ????
What Joel did is actually the following
n = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 n n 2 = 2 0 0 + n = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 n n 2
Maybe this will clear your doubt :)
Python:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 |
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This solution has been marked wrong. You have only calculated the value of ∑ n = 1 1 0 0 0 2 n n 2 instead of the series in question.
One can use the notion of generating functions to conclude as in Azhaghu Roopesh M's solution.
Can you assume infinity =1000?????
You can assume infinity is 1000 to get a good answer, and you can make infinity bigger (let's say infinity is 2000) to get a better answer.
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Let S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 n n 2 . Then:
S = 2 1 1 2 + 2 2 2 2 + 2 3 3 2 + … + 2 k k 2 + …
Multiply both sides by two:
2 S = 2 0 1 2 + 2 1 2 2 + 2 2 3 2 + … + 2 k ( k + 1 ) 2 + …
Subtracting S from 2 S :
2 S − S = 1 + 2 3 + 2 2 5 + 2 3 7 + … + 2 k 2 k + 1 + …
Then: S = i = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 i 2 i + 1
I will break this sum into two smaller ones: S 1 and S 2 , such that:
⎩ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎨ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎧ S 1 = i = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 i 2 i S 2 = i = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 i 1
First, notice that S 2 is an infinite geometric series with first term equal to 1 and ratio 2 1 ; thus, its value equals 1 − 2 1 1 = 2 .
Now, let's work with S 1 .
S 1 = i = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 i 2 i = i = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 i − 1 i
S 1 = 2 0 1 + 2 1 2 + 2 2 3 + … + 2 p − 1 p + …
Multiplying both sides by two:
2 S 1 = 2 + 2 0 2 + 2 1 3 + … + 2 p − 1 p + 1 + …
Subtracting S 1 from 2 S 1 :
2 S 1 − S 1 = 2 + 1 + 2 1 1 + 2 2 1 + … + 2 p − 1 1 + … = 2 + i = 0 ∑ ∞ 2 i 1 = 2 + S 2
Thus, S 1 = 2 + S 2 = 2 + 2 = 4 , and therefore S = S 1 + S 2 = 2 + 4 = 6 .