Hiperbolic geometry with Riemann function

Calculus Level 5

n = 1 sin 2 ( arctan (n) ) n 2 = n = 1 cos 2 ( arctan (n) ) = ? \displaystyle \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} \frac{\sin^{2} (\text{arctan (n)})}{n^2} = \sum_{n =1}^{\infty} \cos^2 (\text{arctan (n)})=? Find a beatiful closed formula for the above expresion and evaluate it. Enter its value round off to 6 decimal places.


The answer is 1.076674.

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1 solution

Levi Walker
Oct 31, 2018

Geometrically, we can think of this as a sum of the terms c o s 2 ( θ ) cos^{2}(\theta) , where θ \theta is the internal angle in a triangle within the unit circle with hypotenuse 1 1 and sides n x nx and x x .

Setting θ = a r c t a n ( n x / x ) \theta = arctan(nx/x) , it's easy for us to see that c o s ( θ ) = x = 1 n 2 x 2 cos(\theta) = x = \sqrt{1-n^2x^2} . So, the sum turns into

n = 1 c o s 2 ( a r c t a n ( n ) ) = n = 1 1 n 2 x 2 = n = 1 1 n 2 1 + n 2 \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty cos^2(arctan(n)) = \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty 1-n^2x^2 = \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty 1 - \frac{n^2}{1+n^2}

Where the last equation was obtained by using the Pythagorean theorem ( 1 = x 2 + n 2 x 2 = x 2 ( 1 + n 2 ) 1 = x^2 + n^2x^2 = x^2(1+n^2) ) to solve for x x in terms of n n . The terms of the sum converge to 0 0 as n n \to \infty . Additionally, we know that it is also bounded by the geometric series 1 / n 2 \sum 1/n^2 so it seems like we're in good shape for the whole thing to converge. In fact, we can simplify things further to

n = 1 1 1 + n 2 \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{1+n^2}

We also have the identity

n = 1 a 2 + n 2 = π a c o t h ( π a ) \displaystyle\sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{a^2+n^2} = \frac{\pi}{a}coth(\pi a)

In order to turn this into the form of the original problem, we have to set a = 1 a=1 and cut the sum into half. This can be done by taking out the n = 0 n=0 term, 1 1 , and dividing everything by 2 2 . We can only do this since the terms are all the same at both negative and positive values of n n . Doing this turns the indices of the sum from 1 1 to \infty .

1 2 + n = 1 1 1 + n 2 = π 2 c o t h ( π ) \frac{1}{2} + \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{1+n^2} = \frac{\pi}{2}coth(\pi)

FInally,

n = 1 1 1 + n 2 = π 2 c o t h ( π ) 1 2 = 1.07634 \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{1+n^2} = \frac{\pi}{2}coth(\pi) - \frac{1}{2} = 1.07634

A great approach!!!! +1

Aaghaz Mahajan - 2 years, 6 months ago

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