Bull's-eye!

As per British Darts Organisation (BDO), the standard dart board used in international competitions has an overall diameter of 45.1 cm 45.1\text{ cm} , and an inner bull's-eye (red circle in the center) diameter of 12.7 mm 12.7\text{ mm} .

Assuming that all shots fall within the dart board area, what is the expected number of attempts needed for the player to hit the inner bull's-eye area once?

Round off your answer to the nearest whole number.


The answer is 1261.

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2 solutions

Kai Ott
Jul 7, 2016

Relevant wiki: Expected Value

The probability P of hitting the bullseye is the ratio of the area of the whole board and the bullseye. So P = 12. 7 2 45 1 2 P =\frac{12.7^2}{451^2} . We can reformulate the question to when is the expected value of hitting the board equal to 1. This leads to P × n = 1 n = 1 P = 45 1 2 12. 7 2 1261 P \times n =1 \Rightarrow n = \frac{1}{P} = \frac{451^2}{12.7^2} \approx 1261

i also did in the same way

ALEKHYA CHINA - 4 years, 11 months ago

Did the same, dude. Cannot understand why it is level 4 hhahaha whatever simple one (451/12.7)^2

Ραμών Αδάλια - 4 years, 11 months ago

Nice solution. :)

Jaydee Lucero - 4 years, 11 months ago

This all assumes the dart player has no skill.

Patrick Smith - 4 years, 11 months ago
Jaydee Lucero
Jul 5, 2016

Let H be the event of hitting the bull's-eye, N be the event of no-hit.

The probability of H (i.e. bull's-eye at trial 1) is π 4 ( 12.7 ) 2 π 4 ( 451 ) 2 7.9297 × 1 0 4 \frac{\frac{\pi}{4}(12.7)^2}{\frac{\pi}{4}(451)^2}\approx7.9297\times 10^{-4} . [Note: The dimensions should be of the same units !]

Similarly, the probability of N is 1 7.9297 × 1 0 4 0.9992 1 - 7.9297\times 10^{-4}\approx0.9992 .

Now, the probability of the sequence NH (i.e. bull's-eye at trial 2) is ( 0.9992 ) ( 7.9297 × 1 0 4 ) (0.9992)(7.9297\times 10^{-4}) ,

The probability of the sequence NNH (i.e. bull's-eye at trial 3) is ( 0.9992 ) 2 ( 7.9297 × 1 0 4 ) (0.9992)^2 (7.9297\times 10^{-4}) ,

The probability of the sequence NNNH (i.e. bull's-eye at trial 4) is ( 0.9992 ) 3 ( 7.9297 × 1 0 4 ) (0.9992)^3 (7.9297\times 10^{-4}) ,

... and so on.

We can show that this forms a probability distribution, since k = 1 ( 0.9992 ) k 1 ( 7.9297 × 1 0 4 ) = 1 \sum_{k=1}^\infty (0.9992)^{k - 1} (7.9297\times 10^{-4}) = 1 Therefore, the expected value is E ( X ) = k = 1 k ( 0.9992 ) k 1 ( 7.9297 × 1 0 4 ) = 1 7.9297 × 1 0 4 1261 E(X) = \sum_{k=1}^\infty k(0.9992)^{k - 1} (7.9297\times 10^{-4}) =\frac{1}{7.9297\times 10^{-4}} \approx \boxed{1261}

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