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It can also be solved using De morvies theorem
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The first solution is using De Moivre's theorem, I believe.
yes i found it
x 2 − 3 x + 1 = 0 ⇒ x = 2 3 ± i = e 6 i π .
So x 2 0 0 + x 2 0 0 1 = e 3 i 1 0 0 π + e 3 − i 1 0 0 π = − 1 . □
Nice ,short, intelligent method.
Let's us define a sequence s n = x n + ( 1 / x ) n where s 0 = 2 and s 1 = x + 1 / x = 3 . It is easy to prove that that sequence satisfies the following recursion s n + 1 = 3 s n − s n − 1 and then by mathematical induction one can prove that s n = 2 cos ( n ∗ π / 6 ) . Therefore s 2 0 0 = 2 cos ( 2 0 0 ∗ π / 6 ) = 2 cos ( 3 2 π + 4 π / 3 ) = 2 cos ( 4 π / 3 ) = 2 ( − 1 / 2 ) = − 1 .
Out of the box method. Congrats.
Just to show another approach:
We use the following identities, remembering that x n ∗ x n 1 = 1 .
If x n + x n 1 = y x 2 n + x 2 n 1 = y 2 − 2 , ( 1 ) x 3 n + x 3 n 1 = y 3 − 3 y . ( 2 x a + x a 1 } ∗ { x b + x b 1 } = x a + b + x a + b 1 + x a − b + x a − b 1 , ( 3 ) x + x 1 = 3 . x 2 + x 2 1 = 1 u s i n g ( 1 ) ( 4 ) x 3 + x 3 1 = 0 u s i n g ( 2 ) ( 5 ) x 5 + x 5 1 = − 3 f r o m ( 4 ) ∗ ( 5 ) u s i n g ( 3 ) ( 6 ) x 1 0 + x 1 0 1 = 1 f r o m ( 6 ) u s i n g ( 1 ) ( 7 ) x 2 0 + x 2 0 1 = − 1 f r o m ( 7 ) u s i n g ( 1 ) ( 8 ) x 4 0 + x 4 0 1 = − 1 f r o m ( 8 ) u s i n g ( 1 ) ( 9 ) x 8 0 + x 8 0 1 = − 1 f r o m ( 9 ) u s i n g ( 1 ) ( 1 0 ) x 1 2 0 + x 1 2 0 1 = 2 f r o m ( 9 ) ∗ ( 1 0 ) u s i n g ( 3 ) ( 1 1 ) x 1 6 0 + x 1 6 0 1 = − 1 f r o m ( 1 1 ) u s i n g ( 1 ) ( 1 2 ) x 2 0 0 + x 2 0 0 1 = − 1 f r o m ( 9 ) ∗ ( 1 2 ) u s i n g ( 3 )
Note:
For integer
n > 0 , x 1 0 ∗ 2 n + x 1 0 ∗ 2 n 1 = − 1 ( 8 ) to ( 1 0 ) x 3 n + x 3 n 1 = 0
and such other.
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Same method with Ruslan Abdulgani . I am putting it in proper LaTex.
x + x 1 = 3 ⇒ x 2 − 3 x + 1 = 0 ⇒ x = 2 3 ± 3 − 4 = 2 3 ± 2 1 i = cos 6 π ± sin 6 π i = e ± 6 π i
⇒ x 2 0 0 + x 2 0 0 1 = e 6 2 0 0 π i + e − 6 2 0 0 π i = e 3 4 π i + e − 3 4 π i = − 2 1 + 2 3 i − 2 1 − 2 3 i = − 1
Another way to solve this is using Newton's Sums method. We know that:
α + β = 3 ⇒ α β = 1
α 2 + β 2 = ( α + β ) 2 − 2 α β = 3 − 2 = 1
For n > 2 ⇒ α n + β n = ( α + β ) ( α n − 1 + β n − 1 ) − α β ( α n − 2 + β n − 2 ) = 3 ( α n − 1 + β n − 1 ) − ( α n − 2 + β n − 2 )
Using an Excel spreadsheet, we can find out the values of α n − 2 + β n − 2 see below:
It is noted that the values of α n + β n repeat in a cycle of 1 2 . For 2 0 0 mod 1 2 = 8 we have α 2 0 0 + β 2 0 0 = α 8 + β 8 = − 1