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Calculus Level 4

Find the smallest odd positive integer n n such that the n th n^\text{th} derivative of tan x \tan x at x = 0 x=0 is not a power of 2.


The answer is 7.

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1 solution

Let f ( x ) = tan x f(x)= \tan x , then the coefficients of its Maclaurin series are f ( n ) ( 0 ) n ! \dfrac {f^{(n)}(0)}{n!} , where n = 0 , 1 , 2 , . . . n = 0, 1,2,... non-negative integers. The Maclaurin series up to n = 9 n=9 is as follows (Eqn. 29) (note that f ( n ) ( 0 ) = 0 f^{(n)}(0) = 0 for even n n ):

tan x = x + 1 3 x 3 + 2 15 x 5 + 17 315 x 7 + 62 2835 + . . . = f ( 0 ) 1 ! x + f ( 0 ) 3 ! x 3 + f ( 5 ) ( 0 ) 5 ! x 5 + f ( 7 ) ( 0 ) 7 ! x 7 + f ( 9 ) ( 0 ) 9 ! x 9 + . . . \begin{aligned} \tan x & = x + \frac 13 x^3 + \frac 2{15}x^5 + \frac {17}{315}x^7 + \frac {62}{2835} + ... \\ & = \frac {f'(0)}{1!}x + \frac {f'''(0)}{3!}x^3 + \frac {f^{(5)}(0)}{5!}x^5 + \frac {f^{(7)}(0)}{7!}x^7 + \frac {f^{(9)}(0)}{9!}x^9 + ... \end{aligned}

Therefore, we have:

\(\begin{array} {} f'(0) = 1 \cdot 1! = 1 & = \color{red}{2^0} \\ f'''(0) = \frac 13 \cdot 3! = 2 & = \color{red}{2^1} \\ f^{(5)}(0) = \frac 2{15} \cdot 5! = 16 & = \color{red}{2^4} \\ f^{(7)}(0) = \frac {17}{315} \cdot 7! = 272 & = \color{blue}{\text{Not a power of 3 } - \text{ accepted.}} \end{array} \)

n = 7 \implies n = \boxed{7} .

f ( n ) ( 0 ) f^{(n)}(0) for odd n n is also given by (Eqn. 50) :

d 2 n + 1 d x 2 n + 1 tan x x = 0 = ( 1 ) n 2 2 n + 2 ( 2 2 n + 2 1 ) B 2 n + 2 2 n + 2 \frac {d^{2n+1}}{dx^{2n+1}} \tan x \ \bigg|_{x=0} = \frac {(-1)^n2^{2n+2}(2^{2n+2}-1)B_{2n+2}}{2n+2}

where B n B_n is a Bernoulli number .

The first few f ( n ) ( 0 ) f^{(n)}(0) are given below:

n = 0 , f ( 0 ) = ( 1 ) ( 4 ) ( 3 ) ( 1 6 ) 2 = 1 n = 1 , f ( 0 ) = ( 1 ) ( 16 ) ( 15 ) ( 1 30 ) 4 = 2 n = 2 , f ( 5 ) ( 0 ) = ( 1 ) ( 64 ) ( 63 ) ( 1 42 ) 6 = 16 n = 3 , f ( 7 ) ( 0 ) = ( 1 ) ( 256 ) ( 255 ) ( 1 30 ) 8 = 272 n = 4 , f ( 9 ) ( 0 ) = ( 1 ) ( 1024 ) ( 1023 ) ( 5 66 ) 10 = 7936 \begin{array} {lrll} n = 0, & f'(0) & = \dfrac {(1)(4)(3)\left(\frac 16 \right)}2 & = 1 \\ n = 1, & f'''(0) & = \dfrac {(-1)(16)(15)\left(-\frac 1{30} \right)}4 & = 2 \\ n = 2, & f^{(5)}(0) & = \dfrac {(1)(64)(63)\left(\frac 1{42} \right)}6 & = 16 \\ n = 3, & f^{(7)}(0) & = \dfrac {(-1)(256)(255)\left(-\frac 1{30} \right)}8 & = \color{#3D99F6}{272} \\ n = 4, & f^{(9)}(0) & = \dfrac {(1)(1024)(1023)\left(\frac 5{66} \right)}{10} & = 7936 \end{array}

You interpreted (Eqn 50) wrongly. If you substitute n = 7 n=7 , you get the value of 1903757312, not 272. Plus, you didn't specify that the n th n^\text{th} derivative is at x = 0 x=0 .

By looking at the Maclaurin Series of tan x \tan x , why are the coefficients for x 2 M x^{2M} are zero for all non-negative integer M M ? Is it a strange coincidence?

This solution looks much more complicated than it needs to be. Can you find a simpler solution?

Pi Han Goh - 4 years, 10 months ago

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I have chectked the calculations. See the table above. I will provide a complete solution tomorrow.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 4 years, 10 months ago

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