How much larger is the denominator? (Try 2 -- copy error in entering the answer)

This problem’s question is: {\color{#D61F06}\text{This problem's question is:}} How much larger is the denominator?

Warning: {\color{#D61F06}\text{Warning:}} Wolfram/Alpha can not handle this problem. Wolfram Mathematica can. The indefinite integral is several pages long. Try this problem only if you have a capable CAS available.

I : n ( m = 1 n sinc ( x 2 m 1 ) ) d x I: n\to\int_{-\infty }^{\infty } \left(\prod _{m=1}^n \text{sinc}\left(\frac{x}{2 m-1}\right)\right) \, dx

The expression above is a function expressed as a mapping.

To form the answer: compute I(8), divide the result by π \pi , take the absolute value, subtract the numerator from the denominator of the resultant rational number.

I ( m ) π \left|\frac{I(m)}{\pi}\right| for m from 1 to 7 by 1 are all 1.


The answer is 6879714958723010531.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

2 solutions

Mark Hennings
Jul 28, 2019

it has been a few years since I posted this proof as a solution to a previous question, so it seems worth digging it out again.

These are what are called the Borwein integrals. For any k > 0 k > 0 define the function f k ( x ) = k 2 χ [ k 1 , k 1 ] ( x ) f_k(x) \; = \; \tfrac{k}{2} \chi_{[-k^{-1},k^{-1}]}(x) noting that R f k ( x ) d x = 1 ( F f k ) ( y ) = 1 2 π s i n c ( y k ) \int_\mathbb{R} f_k(x)\,dx \; = \; 1 \hspace{2cm} (\mathcal{F}f_k)(y) \; =\; \tfrac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \mathrm{sinc}\big(\tfrac{y}{k}\big) for any k > 0 k > 0 , where F \mathcal{F} denotes the Fourier transform, and s i n c ( x ) = sin x x \mathrm{sinc}(x) \; = \; \frac{\sin x}{x} Thus j = 1 n s i n c ( y 2 j + 1 ) = ( 2 π ) 1 2 n j = 1 n ( F f 2 j + 1 ) ( y ) = 2 π [ F ( f 3 f 5 f 2 n + 1 ) ] ( y ) \prod_{j=1}^n \mathrm{sinc}\big(\tfrac{y}{2j+1}\big) \; = \; (2\pi)^{\frac12n} \prod_{j=1}^n (\mathcal{F}f_{2j+1})(y) \; = \; \sqrt{2\pi} \big[\mathcal{F} (f_3 \star f_5 \star \cdots \star f_{2n+1})\big](y) where \star denotes the convolution operation ( f g ) ( x ) = R f ( y ) g ( x y ) d y (f \star g)(x) \; =\; \int_{\mathbb{R}} f(y)g(x-y)\,dy for suitable functions f , g f,g . Note that all functions we shall be dealing with are "suitable". Thus B n = 0 j = 0 n s i n c ( x 2 j + 1 ) d x = 1 2 × 2 π F f 1 , F ( f 3 f 5 f 2 n + 1 ) = π f 1 , f 3 f 5 f 2 n + 1 = 1 2 π 1 1 ( f 3 f 5 f 2 n + 1 ) ( x ) d x \begin{aligned} B_n \; = \; \int_0^\infty \prod_{j=0}^n \mathrm{sinc}\big(\tfrac{x}{2j+1}\big)\,dx & = \; \tfrac12\times2\pi\big\langle \mathcal{F}f_1 \,,\, \mathcal{F}(f_3 \star f_5 \star \cdots f_{2n+1})\big\rangle \\ & = \; \pi\big\langle f_1\,,\, f_3 \star f_5 \star \cdots \star f_{2n+1} \big\rangle \\ & = \; \tfrac12\pi \int_{-1}^1 \big(f_3 \star f_5 \star \cdots \star f_{2n+1}\big)(x)\,dx \end{aligned} Now define c n = j = 1 n 1 2 j + 1 c_n \; = \; \sum_{j=1}^n \frac{1}{2j+1} and let F n ( x ) = ( f 3 f 5 f 2 n + 1 ) ( x ) F_n(x) \; = \; (f_3 \star f_5 \star \cdots \star f_{2n+1})(x) It is a simple matter of induction to note that:

  • F n F_n is an even function of x x ,
  • F n ( x ) F_n(x) vanishes for x > c n |x| > c_n ,
  • we have F n ( x ) = ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ! 2 n ( n 1 ) ! ( c n x ) n 1 c n 1 < x < c n . F_n(x) \; = \; \frac{(2n+1)!!}{2^n (n-1)!} (c_n - x)^{n-1} \hspace{1cm} c_{n-1} < x < c_n \;.

Thus, if n n is small enough that c n < 1 c_n < 1 , then B n = 1 2 π 1 1 F n ( x ) d x = 1 2 π R F n ( x ) d x = 1 2 π j = 1 n R f 2 j + 1 ( x ) d x = 1 2 π B_n \; = \; \tfrac12\pi \int_{-1}^1 F_n(x)\,dx \; = \; \tfrac12\pi \int_{\mathbb{R}}F_n(x)\,dx \; = \; \tfrac12\pi \prod_{j=1}^n \int_{\mathbb{R}}f_{2j+1}(x)\,dx \; = \; \tfrac12\pi On the other hand, if n n is such that c n 1 < 1 < c n c_{n-1} < 1 < c_n , then B n = 1 2 π π 1 F n ( x ) d x = 1 2 π π 1 c n ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ! 2 n ( n 1 ) ! ( c n x ) n 1 d x = 1 2 π π ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ! 2 n n ! ( c n 1 ) n \begin{aligned} B_n & = \; \tfrac12\pi - \pi\int_1^\infty F_n(x)\,dx \; = \; \tfrac12\pi - \pi\int_1^{c_n} \frac{(2n+1)!!}{2^n (n-1)!}(c_n-x)^{n-1}\,dx \\ & = \; \tfrac12\pi - \pi \frac{(2n+1)!!}{2^n n!}(c_n-1)^n \end{aligned} Since c 6 < 1 < c 7 c_6 < 1 < c_7 , we have B n = 1 2 π B_n = \tfrac12\pi for 1 n 6 1 \le n \le 6 , while B 7 = 1 2 π π 15 ! ! 2 7 7 ! ( c 7 1 ) 7 B_7 \; = \; \tfrac12\pi - \pi\frac{15!!}{2^7 \,7!}(c_7-1)^7 and by symmetry I ( 8 ) = 2 B 7 I(8) = 2B_7 , so that I ( 8 ) π = 1 15 ! ! 2 6 7 ! ( c 7 1 ) 7 = 467807924713440738696537864469 467807924720320453655260875000 \frac{I(8)}{\pi} \; = \; 1 - \frac{15!!}{2^6\,7!}(c_7-1)^7 \; = \; \frac{467807924713440738696537864469}{467807924720320453655260875000} and the difference between the numerator and the denominator is 6879714958723010531 \boxed{6879714958723010531} .

Of course, if you give Wolfram Alpha the above formula for B 7 B_7 , it can handle it!

Bravo! Good job!

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 10 months ago

Wolfram/Alpha could not handle the original integration when I tried it. It may have been a time out issue.

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 10 months ago

I : n ( m = 1 n sinc ( x 2 m 1 ) ) d x I : n \to \int_{-\infty }^{\infty } \left(\prod _{m=1}^n \text{sinc}\left(\frac{x}{2 m-1}\right)\right) \, dx

See Illusive patterns in math explained by ideas in physics .

Image credit: Majumdar and Trizac. ©2019 American Physical Society

I ( 8 ) 467807924713440738696537864469 π 467807924720320453655260875000 I(8) \Rightarrow \frac{467807924713440738696537864469 \pi }{467807924720320453655260875000}

f = I ( 8 ) f = I(8) and Denominator [ f ] Numerator [ f ] 6879714958723010531 \text{Denominator}[f]-\text{Numerator}[f] \Rightarrow 6879714958723010531

The error happened as a result of choosing an incorrect copying method for the answer text . The first method seems to round to 16 decimal places and second copies as a text string without rounding. I took advantage of this situation to correct a significant, but not problem affecting, error in the last line of the problem statement.

It would be easy to adjust my proof to derive a proof for this Theorem

Mark Hennings - 1 year, 10 months ago

If you like to do so, then, please, do so. Others then might learn from reading your proof.

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 10 months ago

As I suggested, this is a slight variation on my previous calculation.

Suppose that a j > 0 a_j > 0 for all 1 j n 1 \le j \le n . If we define g n ( x ) = 1 2 a n χ [ a n , a n ] ( x ) g_n(x) = \tfrac{1}{2a_n}\chi_{[-a_n,a_n]}(x) , then we have g n ( x ) d x = 1 ( F g n ) ( y ) = 1 2 π s i n c ( a n y ) \int_{-\infty}^\infty g_n(x)\,dx \;= \; 1 \hspace{2cm} (\mathcal{F}g_n)(y) \; = \; \tfrac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\mathrm{sinc}(a_ny) and hence j = 2 n s i n c ( a j y ) = 2 π [ F ( g 2 g 3 g n ) ] ( y ) \prod_{j=2}^n \mathrm{sinc}(a_jy) \; = \; \sqrt{2\pi}\big[\mathcal{F}(g_2 \star g_3 \star \cdots \star g_n)\big](y) so that 1 2 π j = 1 n s i n c ( a j y ) d y = F g 1 , F ( g 2 g n ) = g 1 , g 2 g n = 1 2 a n a n a n ( g 2 g n ) ( x ) d x \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \prod_{j=1}^n\mathrm{sinc}(a_jy)\,dy \; = \; \langle \mathcal{F}g_1,\mathcal{F}(g_2 \star \cdots \star g_n)\rangle \; = \; \langle g_1,g_2 \star \cdots g_n\rangle \; = \; \frac{1}{2a_n}\int_{-a_n}^{a_n}(g_2 \star \cdots g_n)(x)\,dx It is again easy to show by induction that ( g 2 g n ) ( x ) = 0 (g_2 \star \cdots \star g_n)(x) = 0 whenever x > j = 1 n a j |x| > \sum_{j=1}^n a_j , and so it follows that 1 2 π j = 1 n s i n c ( a j y ) d y = 1 2 a n ( g 2 g n ) ( x ) d x = 1 2 a n \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \prod_{j=1}^n\mathrm{sinc}(a_jy)\,dy \; = \; \frac{1}{2a_n} \int_{-\infty}^\infty (g_2 \star \cdots \star g_n)(x)\,dx \; = \; \frac{1}{2a_n} provided that j = 2 n a j < a 1 \sum_{j=2}^n a_j < a_1

Mark Hennings - 1 year, 10 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...