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Algebra Level 3

1 2 × 2 3 × 3 4 × 4 5 × 5 6 × 6 7 × = ? \dfrac{1}{{\color{#3D99F6} 2}}\times \dfrac{{\color{#3D99F6} 2}}{{\color{#D61F06} 3}}\times \dfrac{{\color{#D61F06} 3}}{{\color{#20A900} 4}}\times \dfrac{{\color{#20A900} 4}}{{\color{#E81990} 5}}\times \dfrac{{\color{#E81990} 5}}{{\color{#624F41} 6}}\times \dfrac{{\color{#624F41} 6}}{{\color{silver} 7}}\times \cdots = \,? David was given the above infinite product as his class assignment by his teacher, Daniel. He found difficult to answer this problem. To make him clear about it , Daniel arranged the product as 1 1 × 2 2 × 3 3 × 4 4 × 5 5 × 6 6 × 7 7 × = ? \dfrac{1}{1}\times \dfrac{{\color{#3D99F6}2}}{{\color{#3D99F6} 2}}\times \dfrac{{\color{#D61F06} 3}}{{\color{#D61F06} 3}}\times \dfrac{{\color{#20A900} 4}}{{\color{#20A900} 4}}\times \dfrac{{\color{#E81990} 5}}{{\color{#E81990} 5}}\times \dfrac{{\color{#624F41} 6}}{{\color{#624F41} 6}}\times \dfrac{{\color{silver} 7}}{{\color{silver} 7}}\times \cdots = \,? At once he answered 1 1 . Is the rearrangement by Daniel correct?


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No Yes

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2 solutions

Jordan Cahn
Nov 13, 2018

We can rewrite the given product as 1 2 × 2 3 × 3 4 × = i = 1 i i + 1 \frac{1}{2}\times\frac{2}{3}\times\frac{3}{4}\times\cdots = \prod_{i=1}^\infty \frac{i}{i+1} By definition, i = 1 i i + 1 = lim n i = 1 n i i + 1 = lim n 1 n = 0 \begin{aligned} \prod_{i=1}^\infty \frac{i}{i+1} &= \lim_{n\to\infty}\prod_{i=1}^n \frac{i}{i+1} \\ &= \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{n} \\ &=0 \end{aligned} So the answer 1 1 is incorrect .

The rearrangement must also, therefore, be incorrect (since the product would, indeed, be 1 1 after rearranging). In general, you can't rearrange the denominators of an infinite product of fractions.

Yes, it is but the theme of the problem about the arrangement of the terms in product above.

Naren Bhandari - 2 years, 6 months ago

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That was edited after I wrote my solution.

Jordan Cahn - 2 years, 6 months ago
Parth Sankhe
Nov 13, 2018

If you keep on crossing out the terms in the first series, you will eventually get 1 × 1 1×\frac {1}{∞} , which would be 0.

Yes, it is but the theme of the problem about the arrangement of the terms in product above.

Naren Bhandari - 2 years, 6 months ago

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