Which of the following is a possible value for this expression:
i i ?
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We know by euler's form that
e i 2 π = i where i = − 1
So we get, for i i = e ( i × i × 2 π ) = e 2 − π
Nice approach!
This solution shows that this is one solution. Can it be generalized to show that it is one of an infinite number of solutions?
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Oj sir. You are asking for generalization? Its quite simple .. i = e ( i ( 2 n π + 2 π ) )
Just put $2k\pi + \frac{\pi} {2}$ instead of$\frac{\pi }{2}$ to get infinite number of solutions
e i π = − 1 most beautiful and famous equation e i π × i = − 1 i e − 1 × π = − 1 i e 2 − π = − 1 2 i e − 2 π = ( − 1 2 1 ) i ∴ i i = e − 2 π
Nice approach!
This solution shows that e − 2 π is one solution. Can it be generalized to show that it is one of an infinite number of solutions?
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Let z = x + i y .
Then
e z = e x + i y = e x e i y
= e x ( cos y + i sin y ) (by applying Euler's formula)
This will equal i only when x = 0 and y = 2 n π + 2 π
Now then, if e z = i then e i z = i i (So e i z will be a possible solution to i i )
In other words, solutions of i i will all be of the form:
e i z
Where z = i ( 2 π + 2 n π )
So, they will be of the form:
e − ( 2 π + 2 n π )
for all integers n .
The only answer for which this equations fits, is e − 2 π