i to the i ?

Algebra Level 1

Which of the following is a possible value for this expression:

i i ? \Large i^i\, ?

i i e 2 π e^{-2\pi} e π 3 e^{-\frac{\pi}{3}} e π 2 e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}} e π e^\pi More than one of these answers e 3 π 2 e^{-\frac{3\pi}{2}} None of these answers

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3 solutions

Geoff Pilling
Mar 15, 2017

Let z = x + i y z = x + iy .

Then

e z = e x + i y = e x e i y e^z = e^{x+iy} = e^xe^{iy}

= e x ( cos y + i sin y ) = e^x (\cos y + i \sin y) (by applying Euler's formula)

This will equal i i only when x = 0 x=0 and y = 2 n π + π 2 y = 2n\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}

Now then, if e z = i e^z = i then e i z = i i e^{iz} = i^i (So e i z e^{iz} will be a possible solution to i i i^i )

In other words, solutions of i i i^i will all be of the form:

e i z e^{iz}

Where z = i ( π 2 + 2 n π ) z = i(\frac{\pi}{2} + 2n\pi)

So, they will be of the form:

e ( π 2 + 2 n π ) e^{-(\frac{\pi}{2} + 2n\pi)}

for all integers n n .

The only answer for which this equations fits, is e π 2 \boxed{e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}}}

Md Zuhair
Mar 16, 2017

We know by euler's form that

e i π 2 = i e^{i \dfrac{\pi}{2}} = i where i = 1 i = \sqrt{-1}

So we get, for i i = e ( i × i × π 2 ) i^i= e^{(i \times i \times \dfrac{\pi}{2})} = e π 2 e^{\dfrac{-\pi}{2}}

Nice approach!

This solution shows that this is one solution. Can it be generalized to show that it is one of an infinite number of solutions?

Geoff Pilling - 3 years, 9 months ago

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Oj sir. You are asking for generalization? Its quite simple .. i = e ( i ( 2 n π + π 2 ) ) i=e^{(i (2n\pi+\dfrac {\pi}{2})})

Md Zuhair - 3 years, 9 months ago

Just put $2k\pi + \frac{\pi} {2}$ instead of$\frac{\pi }{2}$ to get infinite number of solutions

Learner Learner - 1 year, 3 months ago
Viki Zeta
Mar 15, 2017

e i π = 1 most beautiful and famous equation e i π × i = 1 i e 1 × π = 1 i e π 2 = 1 i 2 e π 2 = ( 1 1 2 ) i i i = e π 2 \displaystyle e^{i \pi} = -1 ~~\boxed{\text{most beautiful and famous equation}} \\ \displaystyle e^{i \pi \times i} = -1^{i} \\ \displaystyle e^{-1 \times \pi} = -1^{i} \\ \displaystyle e^{\dfrac{-\pi}{2}} = -1^{\dfrac{i}{2}} \\ \displaystyle e^{-\dfrac{\pi}{2}} = (-1^{\dfrac{1}{2}})^{i} \\ \displaystyle \boxed{\therefore i^i = e^{-\dfrac{\pi}{2}}}

Nice approach!

This solution shows that e π 2 e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}} is one solution. Can it be generalized to show that it is one of an infinite number of solutions?

Geoff Pilling - 4 years, 2 months ago

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