If At First You Fail, Try And Try Again

Suppose you are running a trial that independently has a 1 in n n chance of succeeding. You know that if you attempt it n n times, then the expected number of success is 1.

As n n tends to infinity, what is the probability (to 3 decimal places) that you have at least 1 success during those n n trials?


As an explicit example, for n = 2 n=2 , each trial independently has a 0.5 chance of succeeding, and you have a 0.75 chance of succeeding at least once during the 2 trials.


The answer is 0.6321.

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1 solution

Shourya Pandey
Feb 19, 2017

The probability that you succeed at least once during the n n trials, S n S_{n} , is equal to, by complementary counting,

= 1 P ( = 1- P( you fail during each trial ) ) = 1 ( 1 1 n ) n = 1- {(1-\frac{1}{n})}^{n} .

As n tends to infinity, we get

lim n S n = 1 lim n ( 1 1 n ) n = 1 1 e = 0.6321 \lim_{n \to \infty} S_{n} = 1- \lim_{n \to \infty} {(1-\frac{1}{n})}^{n} = 1- \frac{1}{e} = 0.6321 .

Same way here. Nice problem!

Peter van der Linden - 4 years, 3 months ago

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