Ryan has the following indeterminate form of limit x → 0 lim ( x 3 3 1 + tan x − 3 1 + sin x ) Ryan was told that whenever, x → 0 then sin x , tan x ≈ x . Based on this technique, the limit calculated by Ryan is found to be x → 0 lim ( x 3 3 1 + x − 3 1 + x ) = 0 × x 3 1 = 0 Is the limit evaluated by Ryan correct?
Inspired by Tommy Li.
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Those types of approximations only work if you know that higher-power terms don't contribute anything to the limit, and as a general rule, this often fails when when you're adding/subtracting terms you've approximated. This is why Ryan is incorrect.
We should instead write x 3 3 1 + tan x − 3 1 + sin x = x tan x × x 2 1 − cos x × ( 3 1 + tan x ) 2 + ( 3 1 + tan x ) ( 3 1 + sin x ) + ( 3 1 + sin x ) 2 1
so that taking the limit as x → 0 gives 1 × 2 1 × 1 2 + ( 1 ) ( 1 ) + 1 2 1 = 6 1
I looked at the title of the problem.
50/50 odds.
shamefully walks away
No work needed.Just notice that the 1/x^3 term would be indeterminate and the limit has still been evaluated incorrectly.
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Note that 3 1 + tan x → 0 slower than 3 1 + sin x → 0 and both much slower than x 3 → 0 , therefore, the method does not work.
L = x → 0 lim x 3 3 1 + tan x − 3 1 + sin x = x → 0 lim x 3 ( ( 3 1 + tan x ) 2 + 3 1 + tan x ⋅ 3 1 + sin x + ( 3 1 + sin x ) 2 ) ( 3 1 + tan x − 3 1 + sin x ) ( ( 3 1 + tan x ) 2 + 3 1 + tan x ⋅ 3 1 + sin x + ( 3 1 + sin x ) 2 ) = x → 0 lim x 3 1 + tan x − 1 − sin x ⋅ x → 0 lim ( 3 1 + tan x ) 2 + 3 1 + tan x ⋅ 3 1 + sin x + ( 3 1 + sin x ) 2 1
= x → 0 lim x 3 tan x − sin x ⋅ 1 + 1 + 1 1 = 3 1 x → 0 lim x 3 x + 3 x 3 + O 1 ( x 5 ) − x + 3 ! x 3 − O 2 ( x 5 ) = 3 1 x → 0 lim x 3 3 x 3 + O 1 ( x 5 ) + 3 ! x 3 − O 2 ( x 5 ) = 3 1 x → 0 lim 1 3 1 + O 1 ( x 2 ) + 6 1 − O 2 ( x 2 ) = 6 1 By Maclaurin series Divide up and down by x 3
No , the limit is not 0.