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Calculus Level 5

I = 0 x ln ( 4 x ) 1 4 x 4 + x 2 + 1 d x \large I = \int_{0}^{\infty}\dfrac{x \ln{(4x)}}{\frac{1}{4}x^{4}+x^{2}+1} \,dx

I I is the value of the closed form of the above integral. What is the value of 100 I \lfloor 100I \rfloor ?

You may use the fact that ln ( 2 ) 0.693147 \ln(2) \approx 0.693147 .


The answer is 173.

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3 solutions

Brandon Monsen
Sep 26, 2016

Relevant wiki: Integration Tricks

We can factor the denominator as ( 1 2 x 2 + 1 ) 2 (\frac{1}{2}x^{2}+1)^{2} , and there is an x d x x dx in the numerator, so it looks like a good substitution to make would be to let u = 1 2 x 2 u=\frac{1}{2}x^{2} . With this substitution, we can see that the bounds of integration will stay the same.

I = 0 ln ( 32 u ) ( u + 1 ) 2 d u = 1 2 0 ln ( 32 u ) ( u + 1 ) 2 I=\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln{(\sqrt{32u})}}{(u+1)^{2}} du = \frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln{(32u)}}{(u+1)^{2}}

For any function f ( x ) f(x) that is continuous and differentiable over the interval ( 0 , ) (0,\infty) , we can generalize the following: R = 0 f ( x ) d x R=\int_{0}^{\infty}f(x) dx . Let x = 1 y x=\frac{1}{y} , then d x = 1 y 2 d y dx=-\frac{1}{y^{2}}dy . Also, the bounds of integration will flip, since lim x 0 y ( x ) = \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} y(x)=\infty , and lim x y ( x ) = 0 \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} y(x)=0 . Thus, we get that R = 0 f ( 1 y ) y 2 d y = 0 f ( 1 y ) y 2 d y R=\int_{\infty}^{0} -\frac{f(\frac{1}{y})}{y^{2}}dy=\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{f(\frac{1}{y})}{y^{2}}dy .

We can now rewrite R R by adding the two integrals we have written for R, and then dividing by two. Hence, R = 1 2 0 f ( x ) + f ( 1 x ) x 2 d x R=\frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{\infty} f(x)+\frac{f(\frac{1}{x})}{x^{2}} dx .

Applying this to our original integral:

I = 1 4 0 ln ( 32 u ) ( u + 1 ) 2 + ln ( 32 u ) ( 1 u + 1 ) 2 u 2 d u = 1 4 0 ln ( 32 u ) + ln ( 32 u ) ( u + 1 ) 2 d u I=\frac{1}{4} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln{(32u)}}{(u+1)^{2}} + \frac{\ln{(\frac{32}{u})}}{(\frac{1}{u}+1)^{2}u^{2}} du = \frac{1}{4} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln{(32u)}+\ln{(\frac{32}{u})}}{(u+1)^{2}} du

This nicely condenses into:

I = 5 ln ( 2 ) 2 0 1 ( u + 1 ) 2 d u = 5 ln ( 2 ) 2 1.7328... I=\frac{5 \ln{(2)}}{2} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(u+1)^{2}} du=\frac{5 \ln{(2)}}{2} \approx 1.7328...

And lastly, 100 I = 173 \lfloor 100I \rfloor = \boxed{173}

There are doubtless several different ways to solve this problem, BUT it looks clearly like one on which to use a) complex variables, b) contour integration around a wisely-chosen contour, and c) Cauchy's residue theorem for contour integrals. It is a little troublesome that these subjects are taught at a) The senior year for undergraduate math majors, or b) The master's degree level for mathematics, engineering, and physics majors. This kind of complex mathematics proves to be very useful in electromagnetic fields (E.E. and physics majors), fluid mechanics (A.E., M.E., Ch.E., and physics majors), and quantum mechanics. Also, this math is extremely useful in proving theorems in all sorts of higher mathematics.

Dale Wood - 4 years, 8 months ago

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There have been a lot of important theorems that have been proven by using complex analysis, starting off with Gauss's proof of the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra and continuing from the. Once a theorem has been proven this way, then there are usually mathematicians who want to find an "elementary proof", and this means a proof that does not use the firepower of complex analysis. When this can be done, the "elementary proof" is inevitably longer, more difficult, and harder to understand that the original proof that used the complex analysis.

Dale Wood - 4 years, 8 months ago
Aareyan Manzoor
Sep 27, 2016

the u sub { u = 1 1 2 x 2 + 1 x 2 = 2 1 u u 0 1 0 d u = x ( 1 2 x 2 + 1 ) 2 d x \begin{cases} u=\dfrac{1}{\frac{1}{2}x^2+1} \implies x^2=2\frac{1-u}{u}\\ |_{0}^{\infty} \to |_1^0\\ du=\dfrac{-x}{(\frac{1}{2}x^2+1)^2} dx \end{cases} the integral becomes

0 1 ln ( 4 x ) d u = 0 1 ( ln ( 4 ) + 1 2 ( ln ( 2 ) + ln ( 1 u ) ln ( u ) ) ) d u = 2.5 ln ( 2 ) + . 5 0 1 ( ln ( 1 u ) ln ( u ) ) d u \int_0^1 \ln(4x) du=\int_0^1 \left(\ln(4)+\frac{1}{2}\left(\ln(2)+\ln(1-u)-\ln(u)\right)\right) du\\ =2.5\ln(2)+.5\int_0^1(\ln(1-u)-\ln(u))du by subbing 1-u to the int, we will get it = to its negative and hence 0. so the answer is 2.5 ln ( 2 ) \boxed{2.5\ln(2)}

David Orrell
Jan 17, 2017

Looking back on it I could have done this with one substitution but as a novice mathematician, it was necessary for me to break down the problem first by reducing from quartic to quadratic before performing the inversion technique. Furthermore to ascertain that the inversion of the variable should be 4 v \frac{4}{v} in the following solution, I applied this method:

Let substitution be u = k v u = \frac{k}{v} , d u = k v 2 du = -\frac{k}{v^{2}}

Before the substitution, the denominator is ( u + 2 ) 2 (u+2)^{2} , and afterwards it will become v 2 ( k v + 2 ) 2 = ( 2 v + k ) 2 -v^{2}(\frac{k}{v}+2)^{2} = (2v+k)^{2} . Since these two must be in the same ratio for the final step to work (by adding numerators over the same denominator), clearly k = 4 k = 4 . Now, on to the integration:

I = 0 x ln ( 4 x ) 1 4 x 4 + x 2 + 1 d x = 4 0 x ln ( 4 x ) x 4 + 4 x 2 + 4 d x = 4 0 x ln ( 4 x ) ( x 2 + 2 ) 2 d x \\I = {\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty}}\frac{x \ln (4x)}{\frac{1}{4}x^{4}+x^{2}+1}dx = 4{\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty}}\frac{x \ln (4x)}{x^{4}+4x^{2}+4}dx = 4{\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty}}\frac{x \ln (4x)}{(x^{2}+2)^{2}}dx

Let u = x 2 u = x^{2} , d x = d u 2 x dx = \frac{du}{2x}

I = 2 0 ln ( 4 u 1 2 ) ( u + 2 ) 2 d u = 2 0 2 ln ( 2 ) + 1 2 ln ( u ) ( u + 2 ) 2 d u I = 2{\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty}}\frac{\ln (4u^{\frac{1}{2}})}{(u+2)^{2}}du = 2{\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty}}\frac{2 \ln (2) + \frac{1}{2} \ln (u)}{(u+2)^{2}}du\quad (1)

Let u = 4 v u = \frac{4}{v} , d u = 4 v 2 du = -\frac{4}{v^{2}}

I = 8 0 2 ln ( 2 ) + 1 2 ln ( 4 v ) v 2 ( 4 v + 2 ) 2 d v = 8 0 3 ln ( 2 ) 1 2 ln ( v ) ( 4 + 2 v ) 2 d v = 2 0 3 ln ( 2 ) 1 2 ln ( v ) ( v + 2 ) 2 d v I = -8{\displaystyle \int_{\infty}^{0}}\frac{2 \ln (2) + \frac{1}{2} \ln (\frac{4}{v})}{v^{2}(\frac{4}{v}+2)^{2}}dv = 8{\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty}}\frac{3 \ln (2) - \frac{1}{2} \ln (v)}{(4+2v)^{2}}dv = 2{\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty}}\frac{3 \ln (2) - \frac{1}{2} \ln (v)}{(v+2)^{2}}dv \quad (2)

Now using the equivalence of (1) and (2) ...

I = 1 2 ( 2 0 2 ln ( 2 ) + 1 2 ln ( u ) ( u + 2 ) 2 d u + 2 0 3 ln ( 2 ) 1 2 ln ( v ) ( v + 2 ) 2 d v ) = 0 5 ln ( 2 ) ( u + 2 ) 2 d u = [ 5 ln ( 2 ) u + 2 ] 0 = 5 2 ln ( 2 ) I = \frac{1}{2}\bigg(2{\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty}}\frac{2 \ln (2) + \frac{1}{2} \ln (u)}{(u+2)^{2}}du + 2{\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty}}\frac{3 \ln (2) - \frac{1}{2} \ln (v)}{(v+2)^{2}}dv \bigg) = {\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty}}\frac{5 \ln (2)}{(u+2)^{2}}du = -\left[\frac{5 \ln(2)}{u+2}\right]_0^\infty = \frac{5}{2} \ln(2)

100 I = 250 ln ( 2 ) = 173 \left \lfloor{100I}\right \rfloor = \left \lfloor{250 \ln(2)}\right \rfloor = \boxed{173}

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