Imagine the imaginary!

Algebra Level 2

What is the value of

0 1 i 6

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

6 solutions

Jaiveer Shekhawat
Oct 28, 2014

pd pd

Shall it be called cheating if I take a random value of n and plug values in the equation?

Swapnil Das - 6 years ago

Log in to reply

It isn't "cheating", but it is an invalid proof - as you are only proving the answer for one value of n, which might be a special case (unlikely on this site but you never know) - whereas Jaiveer and others have provided a proof which works no matter which n you choose.

Tony Flury - 5 years, 8 months ago
Sanjeet Raria
Oct 28, 2014

The sum of four consecutive \large \textbf {The sum of four consecutive} powers of iota is always 0 \large \textbf {powers of iota is always 0}

Here the sum can be shown to be a sum of four consecutive powers of i i . Hence it's zero.

Renah Bernat
Nov 1, 2014

It's zero. Basic rule of adding fractions is to find the common denominator (of i^(n+3) ). Doing so will leave i^3+i^2+i+1 in the numerator. But then, i^2 = -1 and i^3 = -i, thus cancelling everything out in the numerator, leaving you with the fraction, 0/i^(n+3) = 0.

How u got i^2 as -1?!

A SUGANYA - 6 years, 7 months ago

Log in to reply

i = square root of -1

Aljun Tusi - 6 years, 7 months ago
Rohan Mullick
Nov 4, 2014

first of all take 1/(i^n) common out of d fractions.Then 1/(i^3) and 1/i cancels out and 1 and 1/(i^2) also cancels.thus ans is 0.

Lokesh Saini
Nov 1, 2014

The given expression can be written as

(1/i^(n+3))(i^3+i^2+i+1) = (1/i^(n+3))(-i-1+i+1) = 0

Alan Pang
Nov 1, 2014

use the definition I^2=-1 and use laws of indices to give 1/i^n-1/i^n 1/i-1/i^n-1/i^n 1/i=0

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...