It is a standard exercise in induction to prove that for n ≥ 1 the inequality ( 3 n ) n < n ! holds. While this is an interesting result, if one observes a graph comparing the two functions one notices that this inequality is actually extremely weak in the sense that the difference between n ! and ( 3 n ) n quickly becomes larger and larger as n increases. In some inequalities, this behavior is to be expected but it can also make us think about how to leverage this fact to get a better inequality for large n .
Let a ≥ 1 be an integer. A way to improve the previous inequality is by finding some integer n 0 such that for all n ≥ n 0 the inequality 3 n − a n n < n ! holds. Notice that if we let a = 0 we have the original inequality. To give an example, if we let a = 1 then n 0 = 2 seems to work. The question is, for what values of a can we find a corresponding n 0 ?
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Since
ln
(
x
)
is monotonically increasing for
x
>
0
, we have
ln
(
n
!
)
=
r
=
1
∑
n
ln
(
r
)
≥
∫
1
n
ln
(
x
)
d
x
>
n
ln
(
n
/
e
)
.
Exponentiating both sides, we have
n
!
>
(
e
n
)
n
.
Since
(
3
/
e
)
n
→
∞
, as
n
→
∞
, for any
a
, there exists a finite
n
0
, such that
3
n
−
a
>
e
n
for all
n
≥
n
0
. This gives, for all
n
≥
n
0
,
n
!
>
3
n
−
a
n
n
.
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In the induction proof for the inequality ( 3 n ) n < n ! one inevitably finds the known expression ( 1 + n 1 ) n and uses the fact that this is between 2 and 3 to conclude. But having more experience, we know that ( 1 + n 1 ) n is related to the famous constant e . In particular, lim n → ∞ ( 1 + n 1 ) n = e so one way of getting a better inequality is finding a stronger way to relate e and ( 3 n ) n . Consider the following: Let u = n − 1 . Then
( 3 n ) n = ( 3 u + 1 ) u + 1 = 3 u + 1 1 ( u + 1 ) ( u + 1 ) = 3 u + 1 1 k = 0 ∑ u + 1 ( k u + 1 ) u k ≤ 3 u + 1 1 k = 0 ∑ u + 1 k ! ( u + 1 ) ! u k < 3 u + 1 ( u + 1 ) ! k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! u k = 3 u + 1 ( u + 1 ) ! e u = 3 n n ! e n − 1
This implies
( 3 n ) n n ! > 3 n n ! e n − 1 n ! = e n − 1 3 n
And notice that this last expression goes to infinity so to pick our n 0 simply choose one such that e n 0 − 1 3 n 0 > 3 a and then that will imply that for n ≥ n 0 , ( 3 n ) n n ! > 3 a ⟹ n ! > 3 a ( 3 n ) n = 3 n − a n n
And with just this, we were able to obtain some very nice inequalities: