Improve the inequality

It is a standard exercise in induction to prove that for n 1 n \geq 1 the inequality ( n 3 ) n < n ! \left( \frac{n}{3} \right)^n < n! holds. While this is an interesting result, if one observes a graph comparing the two functions one notices that this inequality is actually extremely weak in the sense that the difference between n ! n! and ( n 3 ) n \left( \frac{n}{3} \right)^n quickly becomes larger and larger as n n increases. In some inequalities, this behavior is to be expected but it can also make us think about how to leverage this fact to get a better inequality for large n n .

Let a 1 a \geq 1 be an integer. A way to improve the previous inequality is by finding some integer n 0 n_0 such that for all n n 0 n \geq n_0 the inequality n n 3 n a < n ! \frac{n^n}{3^{n-a}} < n! holds. Notice that if we let a = 0 a=0 we have the original inequality. To give an example, if we let a = 1 a=1 then n 0 = 2 n_0=2 seems to work. The question is, for what values of a a can we find a corresponding n 0 n_0 ?

Only a=1 All positive integers Only all integers from 1 to 3 Only all integers from 1 to 27

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2 solutions

Leonel Castillo
Feb 8, 2018

In the induction proof for the inequality ( n 3 ) n < n ! \left( \frac{n}{3} \right)^n < n! one inevitably finds the known expression ( 1 + 1 n ) n \left( 1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n and uses the fact that this is between 2 2 and 3 3 to conclude. But having more experience, we know that ( 1 + 1 n ) n \left( 1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n is related to the famous constant e e . In particular, lim n ( 1 + 1 n ) n = e \lim_{n \to \infty} \left( 1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n = e so one way of getting a better inequality is finding a stronger way to relate e e and ( n 3 ) n \left( \frac{n}{3} \right)^n . Consider the following: Let u = n 1 u = n-1 . Then

( n 3 ) n = ( u + 1 3 ) u + 1 = 1 3 u + 1 ( u + 1 ) ( u + 1 ) = 1 3 u + 1 k = 0 u + 1 ( u + 1 k ) u k 1 3 u + 1 k = 0 u + 1 ( u + 1 ) ! k ! u k < ( u + 1 ) ! 3 u + 1 k = 0 u k k ! = ( u + 1 ) ! 3 u + 1 e u = n ! 3 n e n 1 \left( \frac{n}{3} \right)^n = \left( \frac{u+1}{3} \right)^{u+1} = \frac{1}{3^{u+1}} (u+1)^{(u+1)} = \frac{1}{3^{u+1}} \sum_{k=0}^{u+1} {u+1 \choose k} u^k \leq \frac{1}{3^{u+1}} \sum_{k=0}^{u+1} \frac{(u+1)!}{k!} u^k < \frac{(u+1)!}{3^{u+1}} \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{u^k}{k!} = \frac{(u+1)!}{3^{u+1}} e^{u} = \frac{n!}{3^{n}} e^{n-1}

This implies

n ! ( n 3 ) n > n ! n ! 3 n e n 1 = 3 n e n 1 \frac{n!}{\left( \frac{n}{3} \right)^n} > \frac{n!}{ \frac{n!}{3^{n}} e^{n-1}} = \frac{3^n}{e^{n-1}}

And notice that this last expression goes to infinity so to pick our n 0 n_0 simply choose one such that 3 n 0 e n 0 1 > 3 a \frac{3^{n_0}}{e^{n_0 -1}} > 3^a and then that will imply that for n n 0 n \geq n_0 , n ! ( n 3 ) n > 3 a n ! > 3 a ( n 3 ) n = n n 3 n a \frac{n!}{\left( \frac{n}{3} \right)^n} > 3^a \implies n! > 3^a \left( \frac{n}{3} \right)^n = \frac{n^n}{3^{n-a}}

And with just this, we were able to obtain some very nice inequalities:

Abhishek Sinha
Feb 8, 2018

Since ln ( x ) \ln(x) is monotonically increasing for x > 0 x>0 , we have
ln ( n ! ) = r = 1 n ln ( r ) 1 n ln ( x ) d x > n ln ( n / e ) . \ln(n!)= \sum_{r=1}^{n} \ln(r) \geq \int_{1}^{n} \ln(x) dx > n\ln(n/e). Exponentiating both sides, we have n ! > ( n e ) n . n! > (\frac{n}{e})^n. Since ( 3 / e ) n (3/e)^n \to \infty , as n n \to \infty , for any a a , there exists a finite n 0 n_0 , such that 3 n a > e n 3^{n-a} > e^n for all n n 0 n\geq n_0 . This gives, for all n n 0 n \geq n_0 , n ! > n n 3 n a . n! > \frac{n^n}{3^{n-a}} .

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